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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | bjanko | 461 | ||
The common trait of all the verses you quote is that they all say that the man who chooses Christ will be saved. BUT THEY NEVER SAY WHAT KIND OF MAN CHOOSES CHRIST! This is the case with all so-called "free will" verses. The verses supporting predestination, on the other hand, are very explicit: they all say that no man can choose God unless God enables them to; or they say that God has chosen certain people to respond to His call. Taking this in view, it is very consistent to conclude that God foreordains whom He will save; and when these people choose God, they will have everlasting life. But if you simply say that sinful people who despise God somehow, magically, choose God; then you are really saying that man is not thoroughly sinful, that the inclinations of his heart are not evil continually, and you still have no explanation for how a corrupt man could choose Christ and a way of life which is entirely against all the sinfulness within that sinful man. And you also have no explanation for all the verses which explicitly state that God has predestined a people to Himself. I suggest YOU read John 6:44 in context. In the midst of telling people how to be saved, Jesus makes the EXPLICIT point that they cannot do it on their own. They have not ears to hear. Only the elect, those few who are responding to Christ, are saved; and He makes it clear, properly giving glory to God, that the ones responding have been chosen and predestined by God -- in other words, they are not choosing on their own, but God Himself is drawing them. So, clearly, God's drawing precedes their choosing. In context, the point is clear that Jesus says ONLY the ones who are drawn will be saved; for indeed they are the only ones who are enabled to come to Christ. |
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2 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | userdoe220 | 9681 | ||
Where do we get that man is totally depraved and cannot make a right spiritual thought? I read in a book that man is 100 percent spiritually dead because of Adam's fall. I thought Paul stated we were dead, "because all have sinned?" Paul even listed the spiritual spiral in chapter 1 of Romans. Why would he need to list the spiral if everyone is already at the bottom and will not acknowledge God? who is right? Paul or John McArthur? | ||||||
3 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | bjanko | 9683 | ||
Both are right. Paul was writing to Christians to remind them about the slime from which they emerged. |
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4 | How do you then interpret the verses... | Luke 8:13 | userdoe220 | 9688 | ||
Paul even admits there is a point in which a man will not acknowledge God in Romans 1, yet according to Tyndale commentary it is impossible for a "dead man" to have anything to do with responding to God. | ||||||