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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Holy Spirit's power of Conviction | Rom 5:6 | Reformer Joe | 5843 | ||
"For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren; and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified." -- Romans 8:29-30 Since you think the interpretation of this passage hinges on "foreknowledge," let's see if skipping to the next point brings us to an Arminian conclusion: Let's start with those who are predestined. Note that it is not a means of salvation that is predestined, but individuals. These are the ones who are called. If all are not predestined, it does not logically follow that all are called. This statement would be meaningless otherwise. We both agree that at least some are called. You seem to think that ALL are called, and some do not heed the call. Well, those God called, He JUSTIFIED. If ALL men are called, do you hold that ALL are justified? It doesn't say that "those who answered God's call He justified." Let's go further: those whom he predestined and called and justified He GLORIFIED. Now those who have been called by God are all glorified (according to a "God calls everyone" point-of-view)? Again, there is no passage which explicitly says, "Mankind is free to accept or reject Christ." In fact, there are passages like these which explicitly state the opposite. God is the subject of all verbs having to do with choosing, electing, saving, predestining, adopting. We as Christians are the object of all those verbs. Yes, all who believe will be saved (John 5:24). But who will believe? Only those whom the Father gives to the Son. The rest are completely incapable (John 6:44,65; Romans 8:8). Christ saves completely those whom the Father gives to Him (John 6:37). This is not what somebody reads into the text. It is the text's message. If we cannot believe the rendering of clear-as-crystal biblical text, but insist that it "must" mean something else despite a long and clarifying explanation in its context, how can we be sure of any doctrines of the Bible? --Joe! |
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2 | Holy Spirit's power of Conviction | Rom 5:6 | Chris | 5992 | ||
(Continued) As for I Tim, please consider Barnes New Testament Notes: ‘Who will have all men to be saved.' That is, it is in accordance with his nature, his feelings, his desires. The word will cannot be taken here in the absolute sense, denoting a decree like that by which he willed the creation of the world, for then it would certainly be done. But the word is often used to denote a desire, wish, or what is in accordance with the nature of any one. Thus it may be said of God that he "wills" that his creatures may be happy—because it is in accordance with his nature, and because he has made abundant provision for their happiness—though it is not true that he wills it in the sense that he exerts his absolute power to make them happy. God wills that sickness should be relieved, and sorrow mitigated, and that the oppressed should go free, because it is agreeable to his nature; though it is not true that he wills it in the sense that he exerts his absolute power to produce it. A parent wills the welfare of his child. It is in accordance with his nature, his feelings, his desires; and he makes every needful arrangement for it. If the child is not virtuous and happy, it is his own fault. So God wills that all men should be saved. It would be in accordance with his benevolent nature. He has made ample provision for it. He uses all proper means to secure their salvation. He uses no positive means to prevent it, and if they are not saved it will be their own fault. For places in the New Testament where the word here translated "will" (yelw) means to desire or wish, #Lu 8:20 23:8 Joh 16:19; #Ga 4:20 1Co 7:7 11:3 14:5 Mt 15:28 Mr 7:24. (Please take special note of this verse, "And from there He (Jesus) arose and went away to the region of Tyre. And when He had entered a house, He WANTED no one to know of it; yet He could not escape notice." Emphasis mine, the word in all CAPS is the same word in the Greek that some translation render ‘will' in I Tim 2:4.) This passage cannot mean, as many have supposed, that God wills that all kinds of men should be saved, or that some sinners of every rank and class may be saved, because (1.) the natural and obvious interpretation of the language is opposed to such a sense. The language expresses the desire that "all men" should be saved, and we should not depart from the obvious sense of a passage unless necessity requires it. (2.) Prayer and thanksgiving #1Ti 2:1 are directed to be offered, not for some of all ranks and conditions, but for all mankind. No exception is made, and no direction is given that we should exclude any of the race from the expressions of our sympathy, and from an interest in our supplications. The reason given here for that prayer is, that God desires that all men should be saved. But how could this be a reason for praying for all, if it means that God desired only the salvation of some of all ranks? (3.) In #1Ti 2:5,6, the apostle gives reasons showing that God wished the salvation of all men, and those reasons are such as to prove that the language here is to be taken in the most unlimited sense. Those reasons are, (a) that there is one God over all, and one Mediator between God and men—showing that God is the Father of all, and has the same interest in all; and (b) that Christ gave himself a ransom for all—showing that God desired their salvation. This verse proves (1.) that salvation is provided for all—for if God wished all men to be saved, he would undoubtedly make provision for their salvation; and if he had not made such provision, it could not be said that he desired their salvation, since no one can doubt that he has power to provide for the salvation of all; (2.) that salvation should be offered to all men—for if God desires it, it is right for his ministers to announce that desire, and if he desires it, it is not proper for them to announce anything contrary to this; (3.) that men are to blame if they are not saved. If God did not wish their salvation, and if he had made no provision for it, they could not be to blame if they rejected the gospel. If God wishes it, and has made provision for it, and they are not saved, the sin must be their own—and it is a great sin, for there is no greater crime which a man can commit than to destroy his own soul, and to make himself the eternal enemy of his Maker. Great debate and GOD bless!! |
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