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NASB | Romans 5:6 ¶ For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 5:6 ¶ While we were still helpless [powerless to provide for our salvation], at the right time Christ died [as a substitute] for the ungodly. |
Subject: Christ dying only for elect? |
Bible Note: I believe that the doctrine of unlimited atonement is the scriptural view, and there are numerous verses that support it. In Luke 19:10, the "lost" refers to the collective whole of humanity, not just to the lost elect. In John 1:29, what is "the world" here? The world represents humanity in its fallen state, alienated from its Maker. Reformer John Calvin says of this verse, "When he says the sin of the world, he extends this favor indiscriminately to the whole human race." Though Calvin is often cited in favor of limited atonement, here is a clear statement in which unlimited atonement is his view. In John 3:16, it is critical to observe that John 3:16 cannot be divorced from the context this is set in verses 14 and 15, wherein Christ alludes to Numbers 21. In this passage Moses is seen setting up the brazen serpent in the camp of Israel, so that if "any man" looked to it, he experienced physical deliverance. In verse 15 Christ applies the story spiritually when He says that 'everyone who' believes on the uplifted Son of Man shall experience spiritual deliverance.In John 4:42, it is quite certain that when the Samaritans called Jesus "the Savior of the world," they were not thinking of the world of the elect.1 Timothy 4:10 shows a clear distinction between "all men" and "those who believe". Apparently the Savior has done something for all human beings, although it is less in degree than what He has done for those who believe. In other words, Christ has made a provision of salvation for all men, though it only becomes effective for those who exercise faith in Christ.Hebrews 2:9 contains the word 'everyone'. However, this word (Greek - pantos) is better translated 'each'. Why use the word pantos (each) rather than panton (all)? The singular brings out more emphatically the applicability of Christ's death to each individual human being. Christ tasted death for every single person. Romans 5:6 says 'ungodly'. It doesn't make much sense to read this as saying that Christ died for the ungodly among the elect. Rather the verse, read plainly, indicates that Christ died for all the ungodly of the earth.Romans 5:18, says "all men". Commenting on this verse, Calvin said, "Though Christ suffered for the sins of the whole world, and is offered through God's benignity indiscriminately to all, yet all do not receive Him". This sounds very much like Calvin was teaching unlimited atonement.1 John 2:2, Isaiah 53:6, and John 3:17 state CLEARLY that God has made the provision of salvation available to all human beings. In 2 Peter 2:1, we are told that Christ even paid the penalty of redemption for false teachers who deny Him. This passage seems to point out quite clearly that people for whom Christ died may be lost; there is a distinction between those for whom Christ died and those who are finally saved. In keeping with the above verses, there are also many verses which indicate that the gospel is to be universally proclaimed to all human beings.Matthew 24:14 "And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come"Matthew 28:19 "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit"Acts 1:8 "But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth" (NIV)In view of such passages, it is legitimate to ask, if Christ died only for the elect, how can an offer of salvation be made to all persons without some sort of insincerity, artificiality, or dishonesty being involved in the process? Is it not improper to offer salvation to everyone if in fact Christ did not die to save everyone? The fact is, those who hold to limited atonement cannot say to any sinner with true conviction, "Christ died for you".How then, do we put the 'limited' and 'unlimited' verses together so that, taken as a whole, all verses are interpreted in a harmonious way without contradicting each other? I believe that seemingly restrictive references can be logically fit into an unlimited scenario much more easily than universal references can be made to fit into a limited atonement scenario. The two sets of passages-one seemingly in support of limited atonement, the other in support of unlimited atonement- are not irreconciable. While it is true that the benefits of Christ's death are referred to as belonging to God's 'sheep', His 'people' and the like, it would have to be shown that Christ died only for them in order for limited atonement to be true. No one denies that Christ died for God's 'sheep' and His 'people'. It is only denied that Christ died exclusively for them. Certainly if Christ died for the whole of humanity, there is no logical problem in saying that He died for a specific part of the whole. |