Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | Reformer Joe | 38637 | ||
Andrew: You wrote: "The reason that Jesus says to baptize in the name of the Father, Son and the Holy Ghost is because, He had not been resurrected yet. After his resurrection, all power on earth and in heaven was given unto him and now man can only be saved through him." Your timeline is a little off. Jesus commanded his disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit AFTER his resurrection, not before (Matthew 28:19-20). I also note that you said that NOW man can only be saved through Jesus Christ? How has anyone else ever been saved save for His redemptive, once-for-all atonement for sin on the Cross? --Joe! |
||||||
2 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | Hank | 38644 | ||
Joe, thank you for pointing out once again the oft-forgotten and oft-misunderstood truth that Jesus' atoning work on the cross is all encompassing. The pesty and error-ridden notion prevails still that the blood of the cross is somehow confined to the forgiveness of future sins of mankind and excludes sins of ages past. How frequently one hears preached as biblical doctrine that works saved under the Law; and even the spill-over doctrine that works continue to be a salvific "boost" to salvation by grace through faith in the Lord Jesus. Neither doctrine has any scriptural support, of course, but in these loosey-goosey days of emancipation from the shackles imposed by sola scriptura, who needs Scripture to support their theological blunders? :-) --Hank | ||||||