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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? | Acts 2:38 | kalos | 22331 | ||
"The Oneness insistence that the words "in Jesus name" have to be said over a person while he or she is being baptized is also without scriptural justification. When this phrase is used in Acts (e. g., 10:45-48), it only means "in the authority of" or "for the sake of." It is not a formula (which is why it never occurs the exact same way twice in Acts). "We are commanded to do all things "in the name of Jesus," but this obviously does not mean we have to say "in Jesus name" before we do anything (Col. 3:17). Again, the Jews baptized people "in the name of" many things (Mt. Gerizim, a rabbi, etc.), but they placed no significance on saying these words while performing the ceremony. "Finally, Jesus tells us to baptize "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19), and there is simply no reason to think that Jesus was here cryptically referring to Himself. The fact that next to no one throughout history has understood Jesus to be doing this itself shows that either the Oneness interpretation is wrong, or Jesus is a very poor communicator (and on a point which supposedly affects our salvation!). It was arguments such as these that led me out of Oneness Pentecostalism, and — when combined with a loving, nondefensive approach — I have found them to be very effective in helping other Oneness believers as well." This article by Gregory A. Boyd first appeared in the Spring 1991 issue of the Christian Research Journal. CRI, P.O. Box 7000, Rancho Santa Margarita, CA 92688 Grace to you, Kalos |
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2 | Does Jesus' name satisfy Matt 28:19? | Acts 2:38 | Tim Sheasby | 22332 | ||
OK. Have no problem with this final answer. Boyd has just expressed what I basically believe anyway. He is just a better writer than I. God bless you Tim |
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