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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus suffer in hell when he died? | Luke 23:46 | Morant61 | 66198 | ||
Greetings Joe! Excellent observations my friend! Since you have a linguistic background, I thought you might be interested in this information. The imperative in John 20:17 is a Present, Middle, Imperative, 2nd Person, Singular. The negative particle used with it is 'me' or 'may'. The reason this is significant is that this construction indicates that an action is progress should be stopped, just as you indicated. An Aorist, Subjunctive would be used to indicate a command to not even begin an action. An example of this would be in the Lord's Prayer, where we read 'Do not lead us into tempation'. This is an Aorist, Subjunctive and means not to begin an action which is not currently in progress. This is a tremendously important point and sheds light on many verses of Scripture in that it allows one to identify whether or not a prohibited action is in progress or not. So, you are exactly right about Mary. She had grabbed Jesus and Jesus commanded her to stop. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Did Jesus suffer in hell when he died? | Luke 23:46 | Reformer Joe | 66200 | ||
Thanks for the Greek insight. By the way, I am saving my pennies to study both Greek and Hebrew this coming summer. Then we can duel on an entirely new level! ;) --Joe! |
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3 | Did Jesus suffer in hell when he died? | Luke 23:46 | Morant61 | 66204 | ||
Greetings Joe! It will be well worth the investment! :-) With your language background, you should be able to pick up quite a bit in a short time. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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