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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Jehonadab | 101916 | ||
There is no real issue for using C.E. or A.D. This is a choice, and for those wishing to understand Bible chronology, it is most helpful in dating Biblical events. For instance, when did the Flood in Noah's day occur or what year did the Israelites leave Egypt? Or when was the nation of Israel destroyed by the Babylonian armies, so as to know when " the appointed times of the nations are fulfilled" upon "Jerusalem"? ( Luke 21:24; Ezek. 21:26,27) The use of Bible chronology can help one to understand approximately how long the "creative days" are, to see where we are in the stream of time..( Gen 2:1-3) And concerning the deity of Christ, Jesus himself said that he was "God's Son", for to the Jews who wanted to stone him, he replied,"do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son? " Just moments before, Jesus had said, "I and the Father are one.” "( John 10:31,36) Is this teaching the Trinitarian Doctrine ? Sometime later, Jesus, on Nisan 14, 33 C. E., in prayer to his Father, said,"I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word; in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us" Then Jesus continues," Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one." ( John 17:20-22) If Jesus and God are one in a Godhead, then Jesus eleven apostles would also have to be literally one body, for he said, "that they may be one just as we are one." Hence, what was Jesus praying to his Father about ? Unity, not being part of a Godhead. And also for his eleven faithful apostles to work as "one" , for he continues praying, "I in union with them and you in union with me, in order that they may be perfected into one." (John 17:23) Here is where we can ask some needed questions. (1) If Jesus is God, then why would have to "appeal" to his Father for "more than twelve legions of angels" ? (Matt 26:53) (2) Too, if he is Almighty God, then why was "he was favorably heard for his godly fear", for God fears no one? (3) Also, how can he have " learned obedience from the things he suffered", for God is not obedient to anyone? In addition, Paul writes that Jesus was "called by God a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek" (4) Does God call himself to serve in an office ? ( Heb 5:7-9 ) Even after returning to heaven, the apostle Paul wrote some 20 years later to the Corinthians,"But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the head of the Christ is God. " (1 Cor. 11:3) (5) How can this be,that the Christ has a head, if he is God,since even Nebuchadnezzar quickly noted,concerning God, that "he is doing according to his own will among the army of the heavens and the inhabitants of the earth. And there exists no one that can check his hand or that can say to him, ‘What have you been doing?’" (Dan 4:35) In addition, the Trinity Doctrine teaches that Jesus never had a beginning, hence was uncreated. (6) If that is the case, then how is it that the apostle Paul wrote that "he (Christ Jesus) is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;"? ( Col 1:15) This doctrine also teaches that God and Jesus are coequal. . If that is so, then why did Jesus say " If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am." ? ( John 14:28 ) Furthermore, and concerning the "great tribulation", Jesus said,"Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father." ( Matt 24:36 ) ( 7 ) If Jesus is coequal with God, having all knowledge,then how can the "Son" not know when the "great tribulation" would begin ? (8) Also, if Jesus is God, then why was “all authority... given (Jesus) in heaven and on the earth", for no one gives any authority to God ? ( Matt 28:18 ) (9) If Jesus is God, then why did he pray,"“My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass away from me. Yet, not as I will, but as you will." And a second time he prayed, " My Father, if it is not possible for this to pass away except I drink it, let your will take place." ( Matt 26:39,42 ) (10 ) If Jesus is God, then why would he wish to submit to his "Father's will" ? (11 ) Furthermore, if he is God, then why would he say, "When once you have lifted up the Son of man, then you will know that I am [he], and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things." Yet Isaiah wrote, concerning God, "who as his man of counsel can make him know anything ?" ( Isaiah 40:13, John 8:28 ) ( 12 ) Hence, how can Jesus be "taught"if he is God, since God is taught by no one ? |
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2 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Searcher56 | 101998 | ||
Jehonadab, on point (3), you quoted " learned obedience from the things he suffered", which is Hebrews 5:8 ... Do you understand what Jesus' role was when He was on earth? ... including why He had to obey? |
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3 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Jehonadab | 102846 | ||
It is very clear why Jesus came to the earth, for was it not spoken concerning him, at Psalms 40:6-9, "Sacrifice and offering you did not delight in; These ears of mine you opened up.Burnt offering and sin offering you did not ask for. In view of that, I said: "Here I have come,In the roll of the book it being written about me. To do your will, O my God, I have delighted,And your law is within my inward parts. I have told the good news of righteousness in the big congregation. Look! My lips I do not restrain.O Jehovah, you yourself know that well." Furthermore, Jesus said to Pilate,at John 18:37 "For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, that I should bear witness to the truth. Everyone that is on the side of the truth listens to my voice." Hence, Jesus obeyed his heavenly Father, yes to do His will. He came to provide the ransom, according to Matthew 20:28, but he also came to lay the foundation for a "kingdom". This required unswerving obedience to, not himself,but to his Father, just as Isaac willingly obeyed his father Abraham.( Gen 22:9,10; Heb 11:17) How else then, would the "damage" done in the Garden of Eden be "undone",clearing Jehovah God's name of all reproach, yes, even a restoring to what was originally purposed for the earth,as spoken through Isaiah, " For this is what Jehovah has said, the Creator of the heavens, He the [true] God, the Former of the earth and the Maker of it, He the One who firmly established it, who did not create it simply for nothing, who formed it even to be inhabited."(Isaiah 45:18) Therefore, Jesus had to come to the earth, not only to "give his soul a ransom in exchange for many", but more importantly to make known "the sacred secrets of the kingdom of the heavens" and lay it's foundation.(Matt 13:11) Did not Jesus tell his eleven faithful apostles, "I make a covenant with you, just as my Father has made a covenant with me, for a kingdom,"(Luke 22:29) What did Jesus mean by the "mysteries" or "sacred secrets of the kingdom"? |
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