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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Hank | 100619 | ||
Jehonadab - You did not answer the question! I didn't ask you what the terms "C.E." and "B.C.E." meant. I KNOW what they mean and said so in my question. The question was, and still is, Why do you use "C.E." instead of "A.D." and "B.C.E." instead of "B.C."? Now please answer the question. Why do YOU USE the secular designations C.E. (Common Era) instead of A.D. (Latin, Anno Domini: in the year of the Lord)) and B.C.E. (Before the Common Era) instead of B.C. (Before Christ)? I am repeating the question in a deliberate effort to remove all doubt about what the question is and ask once again that you answer it if you please. --Hank | ||||||
2 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Jehonadab | 100799 | ||
Any system of counting time must have a specific starting or reference point. For example, Christendom counts time from the year in which Jesus Christ was supposed to have been born. Dates since then are said to be in the Christian era. They are often designated by the notation A.D., from the Latin anno Domini, meaning “in the year of the Lord.” Dates before that period are marked B.C., “Before Christ". In the B.C.-A.D. system of dating, events that occurred before the traditional time of Jesus’ birth are designated “B.C.” years (before Christ); those that took place after are labeled “A.D.” years (Anno Domini—“in the year of our Lord.”) However, some informed scholars prefer to use the secular designations “B.C.E.” (before our Common Era) and “C.E.” (of our Common Era.) The use of C.E and B.C.E. provides an accurate basis for dates in the Bible. How though did the the use of the term" A.D" begin ?. Early in the sixth century C.E., Pope John I commissioned a monk named Dionysius Exiguus to develop a system of computation that would allow the churches to set an official date for Easter. Dionysius set to work. He calculated back in time, past Jesus’ death, to what he thought was the year of Jesus’ birth; then he numbered each year forward from that point. Dionysius designated the period from Jesus’ birth “A.D.” (for Anno Domini—“in the year of our Lord.”) While intending only to devise a reliable way of calculating Easter each year, Dionysius inadvertently introduced the concept of numbering the years from what he reckoned as the birth of Christ forward. Although most scholars agree that Jesus was not born in the year Dionysius used as a basis for his calculations, his system of chronology does allow us to locate events in the stream of time and see their relationship to one another. He, although an amateur mathematician, tried calculating the date of the birth of Jesus, and made that date the starting point for the Christian world. He calculated the birth of Christ as having occurred in 753 according to the count from the founding of Rome. Dionysius followed the convention of his times and, as the Roman calendar moved from the year 753 to 754, he called the latter "year one" of the New World order—anno domini the year of our Lord. But some informed Bible scholars have come to prefer the use of B.C.E. and C.E. in understanding Biblical chronology. The dating terms of B.C.E. and C.E. are derived from a different source, not from what Dionysius used as his basis for the birth of Christ. Reliable Bible chronology is based on certain pivotal dates. A pivotal date is a calendar date in history that has a sound basis for acceptance and that corresponds to a specific event recorded in the Bible. It can then be used as the starting point from which a series of Bible events can be located on the calendar with certainty. Once this pivotal point is fixed, calculations forward or backward from this date are made from accurate records in the Bible itself, such as the stated life spans of people or the duration of the reigns of kings. Thus, starting from a pegged point, we can use the reliable internal chronology of the Bible itself in dating many Bible events.Hence, many scholars prefer the use of B.C.E.and C.E. when dating accurately events in the Bible, chronological happenings, for they make separate from the use of A.D.and these are based upon two pivotal dates that informed Bible scholars use-the night that the world power Babylon fell and the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar. ( Daniel 5:30; Luke 3:1, 3 ) Thus this system of dating allows one to date accurately the baptism of Jesus, his death, along with Biblical events dating all the way back to the Garden of Eden. There is no issue here ,but rather an understanding of dating terms and uses. |
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3 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Hank | 100809 | ||
Jehonadab - Thank you for your answer. But isn't this October 20, 2003 A.D. and October 20, 2003 C.E.? So, I fail to see the point of using C.E. in place of A.D. -- anno Domini, in the year of the Lord. Speaking of the Lord, what think ye of Christ, Jehonadab? Is He Deity, is He God the Son, is He indeed God -- or is he a god, as the NWT has it? --Hank | ||||||
4 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Jehonadab | 101916 | ||
There is no real issue for using C.E. or A.D. This is a choice, and for those wishing to understand Bible chronology, it is most helpful in dating Biblical events. For instance, when did the Flood in Noah's day occur or what year did the Israelites leave Egypt? Or when was the nation of Israel destroyed by the Babylonian armies, so as to know when " the appointed times of the nations are fulfilled" upon "Jerusalem"? ( Luke 21:24; Ezek. 21:26,27) The use of Bible chronology can help one to understand approximately how long the "creative days" are, to see where we are in the stream of time..( Gen 2:1-3) And concerning the deity of Christ, Jesus himself said that he was "God's Son", for to the Jews who wanted to stone him, he replied,"do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son? " Just moments before, Jesus had said, "I and the Father are one.” "( John 10:31,36) Is this teaching the Trinitarian Doctrine ? Sometime later, Jesus, on Nisan 14, 33 C. E., in prayer to his Father, said,"I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word; in order that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us" Then Jesus continues," Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one just as we are one." ( John 17:20-22) If Jesus and God are one in a Godhead, then Jesus eleven apostles would also have to be literally one body, for he said, "that they may be one just as we are one." Hence, what was Jesus praying to his Father about ? Unity, not being part of a Godhead. And also for his eleven faithful apostles to work as "one" , for he continues praying, "I in union with them and you in union with me, in order that they may be perfected into one." (John 17:23) Here is where we can ask some needed questions. (1) If Jesus is God, then why would have to "appeal" to his Father for "more than twelve legions of angels" ? (Matt 26:53) (2) Too, if he is Almighty God, then why was "he was favorably heard for his godly fear", for God fears no one? (3) Also, how can he have " learned obedience from the things he suffered", for God is not obedient to anyone? In addition, Paul writes that Jesus was "called by God a high priest according to the manner of Mel·chiz´e·dek" (4) Does God call himself to serve in an office ? ( Heb 5:7-9 ) Even after returning to heaven, the apostle Paul wrote some 20 years later to the Corinthians,"But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the head of the Christ is God. " (1 Cor. 11:3) (5) How can this be,that the Christ has a head, if he is God,since even Nebuchadnezzar quickly noted,concerning God, that "he is doing according to his own will among the army of the heavens and the inhabitants of the earth. And there exists no one that can check his hand or that can say to him, ‘What have you been doing?’" (Dan 4:35) In addition, the Trinity Doctrine teaches that Jesus never had a beginning, hence was uncreated. (6) If that is the case, then how is it that the apostle Paul wrote that "he (Christ Jesus) is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;"? ( Col 1:15) This doctrine also teaches that God and Jesus are coequal. . If that is so, then why did Jesus say " If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am." ? ( John 14:28 ) Furthermore, and concerning the "great tribulation", Jesus said,"Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father." ( Matt 24:36 ) ( 7 ) If Jesus is coequal with God, having all knowledge,then how can the "Son" not know when the "great tribulation" would begin ? (8) Also, if Jesus is God, then why was “all authority... given (Jesus) in heaven and on the earth", for no one gives any authority to God ? ( Matt 28:18 ) (9) If Jesus is God, then why did he pray,"“My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass away from me. Yet, not as I will, but as you will." And a second time he prayed, " My Father, if it is not possible for this to pass away except I drink it, let your will take place." ( Matt 26:39,42 ) (10 ) If Jesus is God, then why would he wish to submit to his "Father's will" ? (11 ) Furthermore, if he is God, then why would he say, "When once you have lifted up the Son of man, then you will know that I am [he], and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things." Yet Isaiah wrote, concerning God, "who as his man of counsel can make him know anything ?" ( Isaiah 40:13, John 8:28 ) ( 12 ) Hence, how can Jesus be "taught"if he is God, since God is taught by no one ? |
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5 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Searcher56 | 101993 | ||
Jehonadab ... Where do you get Nisan 14, 33 C. E? I sense you choose not to answer other questions becuase they are too hard for you ot may expose you? I am correct? |
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6 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Jehonadab | 102580 | ||
Nisan 14, 33 C.E. is the date on which Jesus Christ was impaled on the torture stake, for he pictured the 'passover lamb' (1 Cor 5:7). This was the date the Jews were commanded to observe the Passover, for Jehovah God said, "This month will be the start of the months for you. It will be the first of the months of the year for you....Speak to the entire assembly of Israel, saying, ‘On the tenth day of this month they are to take for themselves each one a sheep... And it must continue under safeguard by you until the fourteenth day of this month, and the whole congregation of the assembly of Israel must slaughter it between the two evenings. And they must take some of the blood and splash it upon the two doorposts and the upper part of the doorway belonging to the houses in which they will eat it....And in this way you should eat it, with your hips girded, sandals on your feet and your staff in your hand; and you must eat it in haste. It is Jehovah’s passover. " Furthermore, He says, " Let there be a remembering of this day on which you went out of Egypt, from the house of slaves, because by strength of hand Jehovah brought you out from here. So nothing leavened may be eaten. Today you are going out (of Egypt) in the month of A´bib." This was to take place on " the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month," (Exodus 12:1,3,6,7,11,18; 13:3,4 ) However, this "first month" Abib was later called Nisan ( March/April ) after the nation of Israel came back from bondage to Babylon, for Mordecai wrote." In the first month, that is, the month Ni´san, in the twelfth year of King A·has·u·e´rus." (Esther 3:7) The Jews had been released from Babylonian captivity on October 5/6 539 B.C.E. and the writing of Esther was completed about 475 B.C.E.and therefore the Jewish Passover was held on the date of Nisan (formerly called Abib) 14. Hence, Jesus celebrated the Passover on Nisan (Abib) 14, 33 C.E. and then afterward passd the loaf and the wine, thereby establishing the celebration of the Lord's Evening Meal. | ||||||