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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Hank | 100619 | ||
Jehonadab - You did not answer the question! I didn't ask you what the terms "C.E." and "B.C.E." meant. I KNOW what they mean and said so in my question. The question was, and still is, Why do you use "C.E." instead of "A.D." and "B.C.E." instead of "B.C."? Now please answer the question. Why do YOU USE the secular designations C.E. (Common Era) instead of A.D. (Latin, Anno Domini: in the year of the Lord)) and B.C.E. (Before the Common Era) instead of B.C. (Before Christ)? I am repeating the question in a deliberate effort to remove all doubt about what the question is and ask once again that you answer it if you please. --Hank | ||||||
2 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Emmaus | 100791 | ||
Hank, Could be connected to the fact that some find it difficult to say Jesus is (Domini) Lord. Emmaus |
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3 | Jehonadab, Why C.E. and B.C.E.? | 1 John 2:2 | Hank | 100795 | ||
Emmaus - Yes, difficult for some to say that Jesus is Lord. Could it be because they don't believe that He is? [Asked rhetorically, no answer indicated.] --Hank | ||||||