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NASB | John 3:16 ¶ "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 3:16 ¶ "For God so [greatly] loved and dearly prized the world, that He [even] gave His [One and] only begotten Son, so that whoever believes and trusts in Him [as Savior] shall not perish, but have eternal life. |
Subject: THE CROSS |
Bible Note: Greetings Mike! I'm glad you got a chuckle my friend! Everyone deserves a little levity each day! ;-) Allow me to demonstrate my point though. Most of the points being made on these threads are inferences from Scripture, not catagorical statements of Scripture. For instance, my involvement in this particular thread began in response to the following statement by JibbyJee: "There is nothing there that suggests he did/didn't die for all men. But in light of all of Scripture, particularly John 6:35-45, it becomes clear that He died TO SAVE and not to FAIL TO SAVE by losing some." I then preceded to list some of the Scriptures that specifically state that Christ died for all men. In response, I have been told this isn't so, but no Scripture has been produced which specifically says that Christ did not die for all men. Then, in another thread, it was specifically stated that 'regeneration precedes faith'. I asked for the Scripture references which make that statement. None were provided. However, I did provide statements from Scripture which specifically list faith as the condition for the various aspects of salvation. Now, the debate has changed once again to the relationship between 'hearing' and 'faith'. I don't know how this point was raised, since I never claimed that 'faith' preceded 'hearing'. We agree on the timing here. Rom. 10:17 specifically says that faith comes by hearing. However, you seem to be suggesting that there are a group of people who cannot nor will they ever be able to hear God's words. John 8:43 says of the Jewish leaders that they literally 'have not be enabled to hear' - present tense. Nothing in the passage ever says that this will always be the case. I would argue that Christ is refering here to the same topic as Rom. 11 - i.e. that the Jews were temporarily hardened that the gospel might go out to the Gentiles as well. But, those in Rom. 11 who were hardened are also said to be able to be grafted in again. So, once again, we have an inference from a passage, but not a clear statement. That is why I made the remark that I did. If someone asks me, why do you believe that Christ died for 'all', I can respond with statements from Scripture which specifically say that Christ died for all. Where are the statements of Scripture that: 1) God did not die for all. 2) God only died for some. 3) God only wills some to be saved. 4) God will only give some people the ability to respond to the gospel. Yes, you can point to Scripture which you believe infers these things, but not to one Scripture which actually says these things. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |