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NASB | John 3:16 ¶ "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 3:16 ¶ "For God so [greatly] loved and dearly prized the world, that He [even] gave His [One and] only begotten Son, so that whoever believes and trusts in Him [as Savior] shall not perish, but have eternal life. |
Bible Question:
John, Your explanation seems to differ from the other two offered in response to my question to you. (see "prazn" ID#89262 and "The Lord's Church" ID#89263) However, I may be missing something. Do you concur with their explanations? Also, as noted by Morant61 ID#89075, the antecedent of "it" in Eph 2:8 is salvation, not faith. What is your response to this view? Parable |
Bible Answer: Eph 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; ANTECEDENT: The noun to which a relative refers; as, in the sentence "Solomon was the prince who built the temple," prince is the antecedent of who. (Webster) Salvation is the presumed antecedent noun. "For by grace you have been saved through faith;" lists 2 defining elements: Grace and faith. Grace, we all agree, is from God alone and does not depend on an act of assent from it's recipient. The question is: Does "saving faith", come from God alone as well? Or, is it an intrinsic attribute common to all men, fallen and born-again alike? John 3:27 John answered and said, "A man can receive nothing unless it has been given him from heaven. All men have do have faith. They have faith in themselves and in their their idols. But do all men have "saving faith"? Obviously not, or all would be saved. It is my contention, based upon scripture alone, that a faith that actually saves is part and parcel with the gift of grace in v.8. Let's not forget the qualifying clause "and that not of yourselves". John, PS I agree with prazn but did not fully understand T.L.C. |