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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Christ die for the world? | 1 John 2:2 | retxar | 6636 | ||
Hi Tim. I agree. 1 John 2:2, in content and context, is proof text, to me, that salvation is whosoever will. The text clearly states, to me, that Christ died for the believer and the nonbelieiver. I have trouble seeing at other places in scripture that “world” does not mean “world,” that “all” does not mean “all,” and that “whosoever”, does not mean “whosoever.” It seems a stretch, to me, at these places to believe anything else other that what the Word says plainly to my heart. I have read Romans 9 and understand the sovereignty of God. I have also read Romans 10 and understand the responsibility of man. I have read Ezekiel 33:11 and know, without doubt, that God has no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live. I have also read John 6:44 and know, without doubt, that no one comes to Jesus unless God draws him. I believe God, who desires that a sinner turn and not burn, will save a sinner being convicted and draw to repentance by the Holy Spirit (2Cor 7:10). However, I also believe that a convicted sinner can resist the Holy Spirit and walk away (John 8:9). Jesus offered salvation to the rich young ruler (Mar 10:21), and he walked away. I believe this was a legitimate offer from Jesus. We must know he would have been saved if he had not resisted Jesus’s offer. Jesus offered forgiveness to the ones who crucified Him (Luke 23:34). Was this a token gesture or a genuine offer? I think it was a genuine offer. Did they all accept? I don’t think they did. Jesus Lives! |
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2 | Did Christ die for the world? | 1 John 2:2 | Morant61 | 6690 | ||
Greetings Retxar! You make some excellent points. There are many passages where words like (all, the world, every, whosoever, ect...) are used. I think there are a few where the context may indicate a narrower focus, but I think the majority mean exactly what they say. One of my favorites verse combo's is the one you refered to in John 6:44. John 6:44 says, "‘‘No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and I will raise him up at the last day." Now compare that verse to John 12:32, which says, "But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.” The word 'draw' in both verses is exactly the same Greek word. I don't see anyway to understand these two verse other than a real offer of salvation to every individual. One good thing though, both Calvanists and Arminians get to the same point through different paths. In the end, God graciously saves. God Bless, Tim Moran |
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3 | Did Christ die for the world? | 1 John 2:2 | Ray | 6695 | ||
Hi Tim, You have pointed out that both the Father and Son are necessary for the drawing to Himself. "AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD." John 6:45,"Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me. Not that anyone has seen the (Father)..."(Parenthesis mine for comparison and contrast) John 12:45 "He who see Me sees the (One) who sent Me. I have come as Light into the world, so that everyone who believes in Me will not remain in darkness." Later, Ray |
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