Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Subject: How do you respond to these passages? |
Bible Note: Greetings Joe! 1) I would agree that the 'we' and 'us' are obviously restricted to Paul's audience and his fellow ministers. However, that doesn't automatically restrict every pronoun in the passage to these two groups. Notice the following usages: a) V. 14 says that Christ died for all men. b) V. 16 says that Paul views 'no one' from a worldly view any longer. c) V. 19 says that God was reconciling the "world" to Himself. May I point out that every time you deal with a passage that says "all" or the "world", your objection is based upon your theology, not upon the text itself. 2 Cor. 5:11-20 simply does not make any sense under Calvinism, but it makes perfect sense under Arminianism. Our reconciliation is an accomplished objective fact at the cross (God was reconciling the world to Himself), but we must accept God's gift (and be reconciled.) You ask whose sins are people suffering in hell for? Their own, because they refused to accept the sacrifice of Christ, which was sufficient to pay for all our sins. I also notice that while you tell me what you think this passage can't mean in light of Calvinism, you do not provide any interpretation about what it does mean in light of Calvinism. What does it mean to "be reconciled" to God? Why is it an imperative? I do appreciate the dialogue. Even if we never agree, I am learning alot for our discussion. For instance, while studying 2 Cor. 5:20, I noticed that the command to be reconcilied is in the passive voice. That confused me totally for awhile! Typically, an active voice refers to the subject doing the action of the verb, while a passive voice refers to the subject receiving the action of the verb. The confusing part of this verse was that the verb is a command. How can a command be passive? Then it struck me. An excellent (and legitimate) way to translate that command would be: "Allow yourself to be reconciled." This address some of the concerns that Calvinists typically have. The reconciliation is totally a work of God, accomplished on the cross. However, we have to allow ourselves to be reconcilied. Therefore the command is an aorist, passive, imperative. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |