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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Bible Question:
Greetings Y'all: There have been several threads deaing with the extent of the atonment. Rather than rehasing all of those discussions, I would like to propose something different. A limited discussion on 1 John 2:2. Personally, I think the best way to debate an issue like this is to deal with a limited number of verses. Since I proposed this, I will start first. Here is my take on 1 John 2:2. The question concerning the extent of the atonement is simply this: Did Christ atone for all or only the elect? Many verses, which seem to indicate that Christ died for all, can be interpreted in such a way as to limit the extent of the word 'all.' However, 1 John 2:2 seems to be perfectly clear. There is a contrast here between believers (our sins) and unbelievers (the whole world). Christ is the propitation for all sin. Now, what does it mean that Christ is the propitation for all sin? The word 'hilasmos' is only used twice in the New Testament (Here and in 1 John 4:10). It signifies a turning a way of God's wrath by an offering. The entire ministry of Christ is signified by this word in 1 John 4:10. The gift of salvation in Romans 3:25 is described using a related word 'hilasterion.' This same word ('hilasterion') is used in Heb. 2:17 to refer to the priestly ministry of Christ. In my opinion, this verse is decisive. Christ died for the sins of everyone. The Cross is the one and only act of atonement for all men and for all sin. I don't see anyway, in light of this verse, that one can argue that Christ only died for the elect. p.s. - A note for all those who respond. Unless one is dealing with heresy, I view debate as an opportunity to sharpen our understanding of Scripture. By interacting with one another, we can see how others view Scripture, consider other points of view, and sharpen our ability to deal with objections to our viewpoints. We may never agree with each other, but I can live with that! God Bless, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Hi Tim, I, too, like the idea of narrowing down a discussion. I want to compare the verses that you mention here. You mentioned for 1Jn 2:2 that there was a contrast, but I don't see that. I see from 1John that we are all sinners. The Gospel of John talks about the world. Jn.1:9, "There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. He was in the world, and the world was made through (Him), and the world did not know Him. He came to His own, and those who were His own did not receive Him. But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in (His) name. (Parenthesis mine for comparison) This passage says that He enlightens every man; He came for the whole world. The world didn't know Him; does it yet? Those who were His own did not recieve Him; do they yet? Certainly not everybody. Verse sixteen says, "For of (His) fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace." Jesus has explained Him. 1Jn 2:2, And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He (Himself) is the propitiation for our sins; Hebrews 2:17, "Therefore He had to be made like His brethren in all things, that He might become a merciful and faithful High Priest in things pertaining to (God), to make propitiation for the sins of the people. Hebrews 3:10 says, "And they did not know (My) ways." He died for those who know (Him), and believe in (Him), and know (His) word, who know Him as the (Light) of the world. God will always have His remnant of (His) people. |