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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Subject: Did Christ die for the world? |
Bible Note: Greetings Lionstrong! My short answer to your question would simply be this: If John wanted to say that, he could have very simply - "Not only did is He the propitiation for our sins, but He is the propitiation for the sins of all believers." He choose not to say that. Further, there is nothing in the context that would allow that interpretation. Furthermore, the word "world" is itself qualified by the word "whole." Is there any place in John's writtings where "world" only refers to believers? Is there any place in all of Scripture, were "world" only refers to believers? In my view, the answer to both of these questions is no. In order to interpret "world", consider how John uses the word "world" in the rest of his writings. a) In John 1:10, John says that the "world" did not recognize Christ. b) In John 1:29, Christ is the Lamb who takes away the sins of the world. c) In John 7:7, the "world" hates Christ. d) In John 8:23, the "world" is contrasted with heaven. e) In John 10:36, Christ is sent into the "world." f) In John 12:25, it is the one who hates his life in this "world" who will inherit eternal life. g) In John 13:1, it is the time for Jesus to leave this "world." h) In John 14:17, the "world" cannot accept the Spirit of Truth. i) In 1 John 2:15-16, we are commanded not to love the world. In fact, the word "world" is used a total of 17 times in 1 John alone. In every other occurance of the word "world" in 1 John, it either refers to the physical world or the opposition of the world to Christ. Therefore, in light of John's usage of the word "world" throughout his writings and in 1 John in particular, to add the word "believers" would be an example of forcing the verse to say what our theology demands it to say, rather than letting the verse inform our theology. I appreciate your response. However, I don't see that the case can be made for limiting the word "world" to only believers when John never ever uses the word in that way in any of his writings. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |