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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Bible Question:
Greetings Nolan! Thanks for the input! As I had discussed with Othodoxy, I believe that invidiual verses must be dealt with in our theology and doctrine. This verse just cannot be made to fit a doctrine of a limited atonement (in my opinion.) However, it is not just this verse but a clear pattern of Scripture as well that Christ both atoned for the sins of the world and wills that all men be saved (hence the offer of salvation to all is real.) Consider the following verses of Scripture: 1) Concerning the extent of the atonement: a) 2 Cor. 5:19 - "that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. " b) John 3:16-17 - "‘‘For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him." c) John 12:32 - "But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.” d) John 6:33 and 51 - "For the bread of God is he who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world.” ..."I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. This bread is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.” e) Titus 2:11 - "For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men." f) 1 John 4:14 - "And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world." g) 1 Timothy 2:6 - "who gave himself as a ransom for all men—the testimony given in its proper time." 2) Concerning the will of Christ to save all: a) 1 Timothy 2:4 - "who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth." b) 2 Peter 3:9 - "The Lord is not slow in keeping his promise, as some understand slowness. He is patient with you, not wanting anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance." c) Romans 11:32 - " For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all." I believe that all of these verses demonstrate the love of God, in that He died for all and res all to be reconciled to Him. The tragedy is that so many fail to respond to the grace of God. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Dear brother Tim, I am in exact agreement! Yes, these verses demonstrate the love of God, how He holds out His hand to all humanity, even though He sovereignly knows who will respond and who will not. And yes, that is the worst tragedy of all- that many will be lost! I am willing to only view the verses in which you have stated (which is Ok with me!), since you originally intended to limit the scope of verses as to focus on this single concept.. But I could also suggest Luke 19:10, John 1:29, John 4:42, 1 Timothy 4:10, Hebrews 2:9 and Romans 5:18, even though we both know that there are plenty of verses that merely say 'friends' or 'many people' or 'the church'- which would seem to support limited atonement. So the question that we come to, since it is evident that there are verses that seem to speak of both limited and unlimited atonement, is: Is there any way to reconcile the two? Is there any way to read both 'sets' of verses in a harmonius way without sounding contradicting? I believe that seemingly restrictive references can be logically fit into an unlimited scenario much more easily than universal references can be made to fit into a limited scenario. No one denies that Christ died for God's 'sheep' and His 'people'. It is only refuted that Christ died exclusively for them. Certainly if Christ died for the whole of humanity, there is no logical problem in saying that He died for a specific part of the whole.I think that I should stop right there- to avoid 'raising the ire' of those who think differently on this issue. I have already grossly mishandled this issue once (Romans 5:6 thread), and I do not want to ruin your thread and your discussion.. :-)Thanks again dear Brother in Christ!Nolan Keck |