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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Bible Question:
Greetings Y'all: There have been several threads deaing with the extent of the atonment. Rather than rehasing all of those discussions, I would like to propose something different. A limited discussion on 1 John 2:2. Personally, I think the best way to debate an issue like this is to deal with a limited number of verses. Since I proposed this, I will start first. Here is my take on 1 John 2:2. The question concerning the extent of the atonement is simply this: Did Christ atone for all or only the elect? Many verses, which seem to indicate that Christ died for all, can be interpreted in such a way as to limit the extent of the word 'all.' However, 1 John 2:2 seems to be perfectly clear. There is a contrast here between believers (our sins) and unbelievers (the whole world). Christ is the propitation for all sin. Now, what does it mean that Christ is the propitation for all sin? The word 'hilasmos' is only used twice in the New Testament (Here and in 1 John 4:10). It signifies a turning a way of God's wrath by an offering. The entire ministry of Christ is signified by this word in 1 John 4:10. The gift of salvation in Romans 3:25 is described using a related word 'hilasterion.' This same word ('hilasterion') is used in Heb. 2:17 to refer to the priestly ministry of Christ. In my opinion, this verse is decisive. Christ died for the sins of everyone. The Cross is the one and only act of atonement for all men and for all sin. I don't see anyway, in light of this verse, that one can argue that Christ only died for the elect. p.s. - A note for all those who respond. Unless one is dealing with heresy, I view debate as an opportunity to sharpen our understanding of Scripture. By interacting with one another, we can see how others view Scripture, consider other points of view, and sharpen our ability to deal with objections to our viewpoints. We may never agree with each other, but I can live with that! God Bless, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Tim, I agree with this premise and applaud you for this approach to the discussion of exactly whose sins where paid for by Christ's Blood on the cross. This question, and my answer to this question is the very basis for my belief on this subject and all other topics that are related to this topic.1 John 2:2 states that He is the propitiation for not only the sins of the people of whom John was writing to, but also for those (sins) of the whole world. In my line of thinking, this verse makes it clear that Jesus died for the sins of the whole world on the cross. Ryrie's NASB Expanded Study Bible comments concerning this verse, "propitiation equals satisfaction. Christ is the only offering that satisfied God concerning sin (cf. Romans 3:25). Christ died for the sins of the whole world, the entire human race." In Zondervan's NASB Study Bible, 1 John 2:2's commentary reads as follows: "Forgiveness through Christ's atoning sacrifice is not limited to one particular group only; it has worldwide application (see John 1:29). It must, however, be received by faith (see John 3:16). Thus this verse does not teach universalism (that all people ultimately will be saved), but that God is an impartial God."Nelson's NKJV Study Bible comments concerning 1 John 2:2, "The sacrifice of Jesus' sinless life is so effective that it can supply forgiveness for the whole world (see 2 Cor. 5:14,15,19; Heb. 2:9). Christ's death is sufficient for all, but efficient only for those who believe in Christ. Not everyone will be saved, but Jesus offers salvation to all (see Rev. 22:17)." |