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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Bible Question:
Greetings Y'all: There have been several threads deaing with the extent of the atonment. Rather than rehasing all of those discussions, I would like to propose something different. A limited discussion on 1 John 2:2. Personally, I think the best way to debate an issue like this is to deal with a limited number of verses. Since I proposed this, I will start first. Here is my take on 1 John 2:2. The question concerning the extent of the atonement is simply this: Did Christ atone for all or only the elect? Many verses, which seem to indicate that Christ died for all, can be interpreted in such a way as to limit the extent of the word 'all.' However, 1 John 2:2 seems to be perfectly clear. There is a contrast here between believers (our sins) and unbelievers (the whole world). Christ is the propitation for all sin. Now, what does it mean that Christ is the propitation for all sin? The word 'hilasmos' is only used twice in the New Testament (Here and in 1 John 4:10). It signifies a turning a way of God's wrath by an offering. The entire ministry of Christ is signified by this word in 1 John 4:10. The gift of salvation in Romans 3:25 is described using a related word 'hilasterion.' This same word ('hilasterion') is used in Heb. 2:17 to refer to the priestly ministry of Christ. In my opinion, this verse is decisive. Christ died for the sins of everyone. The Cross is the one and only act of atonement for all men and for all sin. I don't see anyway, in light of this verse, that one can argue that Christ only died for the elect. p.s. - A note for all those who respond. Unless one is dealing with heresy, I view debate as an opportunity to sharpen our understanding of Scripture. By interacting with one another, we can see how others view Scripture, consider other points of view, and sharpen our ability to deal with objections to our viewpoints. We may never agree with each other, but I can live with that! God Bless, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Hi Tim. I agree. 1 John 2:2, in content and context, is proof text, to me, that salvation is whosoever will. The text clearly states, to me, that Christ died for the believer and the nonbelieiver. I have trouble seeing at other places in scripture that “world” does not mean “world,” that “all” does not mean “all,” and that “whosoever”, does not mean “whosoever.” It seems a stretch, to me, at these places to believe anything else other that what the Word says plainly to my heart. I have read Romans 9 and understand the sovereignty of God. I have also read Romans 10 and understand the responsibility of man. I have read Ezekiel 33:11 and know, without doubt, that God has no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live. I have also read John 6:44 and know, without doubt, that no one comes to Jesus unless God draws him. I believe God, who desires that a sinner turn and not burn, will save a sinner being convicted and draw to repentance by the Holy Spirit (2Cor 7:10). However, I also believe that a convicted sinner can resist the Holy Spirit and walk away (John 8:9). Jesus offered salvation to the rich young ruler (Mar 10:21), and he walked away. I believe this was a legitimate offer from Jesus. We must know he would have been saved if he had not resisted Jesus’s offer. Jesus offered forgiveness to the ones who crucified Him (Luke 23:34). Was this a token gesture or a genuine offer? I think it was a genuine offer. Did they all accept? I don’t think they did. Jesus Lives! |