Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God omnipotent? | John 3:16 | Hank | 89452 | ||
John Reformed: Why appeal to me to show whether you have met the requirements to be a hyper-Calvinist as laid down by Phil Johnson whom you quoted in your post? Why me, who by your own assessment of me, am ignorant of what constitutes hyper-Calvinism? Why do you seek out an ignorant man such as I to correct you? And why should I, whether ignorant or learned, mull through all your posts and cite the number of posts wherein you affirm that the gospel call is not to all but to the elect, that John 3:16 does not mean that God loved the world but only the elect of the world, that Christ died not for all men but for the chosen few, that the last appeal of the Bible in the last chapter of Revelation does not mean whosoever will may come but pertains to the elect, etc., etc., etc. -- why should I go to this trouble? It would do no more than spark another debate about what "all" means and what "whosoever will" means, and about what Scripture "seems to say" as opposed to what it clearly says. Thanks for the offer, John, but no, thanks. I'll just blunder on in my ignorance, a simpleton who believes, as I always have, that God loved the world so much that He have his unique and one-of-a-kind Son that WHOEVER believes in him will not perish but have eternal life, and that John's final call to come to Christ in Revelation is meant for WHOSOEVER will. --Hank | ||||||
2 | What guides our interpretations? | John 3:16 | JibbyJee | 89697 | ||
"WHOSOEVER WILL"? Greetings Hank! Have you ever thought about the difference between "PRESCRIPTION" and "DESCRIPTION" and the influence each has on Biblical interpretation?? Does the distinction have any value to the context of John 3? Or any of the Bible? In Christ, JIBBS |
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3 | What guides our interpretations? | John 3:16 | Hank | 89700 | ||
Hello, Jibbs. Why the question mark after "Whosoever will"? Revelation 22:17 doesn't have one. Maybe the apostle John didn't know about PRESCRIPTION and DESCRIPTION back then. I don't either. When I was a kid learning to read (and I've read a heap of stuff since then), I more or less fell into the habit of trying to read what the author wrote and to understand what he meant by what he said. I've never had an itch to apply PRESCRIPTION and DESCRIPTION, whatever that is, in trying to interpret what Mother Goose meant in her nursery rhymes or what Jesus meant in the third chapter of John. Small wonder that I made it through literature classes without this skill that has the earmark of being the finest contribution to literature since Shakespeare wrote "Hamlet." You must tell us more about it. --Hank | ||||||