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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Which proposition is scriptural? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89126 | ||
Dear Tim, as I recall, I gave you a verse almost from the very beginning, but you rejected it! Matt 1:21 "She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins." You dis-missed it because of your insistance that "His people" must be the Jews. Well it seems strange that Christ would withhold His revelations from those (according to you) he came to save! Matt 13:10,11 And the disciples came and said to Him, "Why do You speak to them in parables?" Jesus answered them, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been granted. There is no way, your definition, fits with the rest of scripture. for one thing the verse says He will! Even I know that when God uses " He will" it is a done deal. For Isaiah told us that God ALWAYS acomplishes His good pleasure. The work of Christ was perfect. He accomplished every thing that God sent Him to accomplish. He has saved His People! His people are clearly those whom the Father has given Him to save (AKA His sheep). Why this is so hard to accept is beyond me. John |
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2 | Which proposition is scriptural? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89133 | ||
Greetings John! I dismissed it for three reasons! 1) I showed you from other verses where the phrase 'His people' refered to Israel. 2) The phrase is not defined in the passage. 3) It still does not say that Christ did not die for all men. A passage which speaks of a subgroup does not automatically exclude the larger group unless specifically stated elsewhere. So, to say that I love you, does not necesarilly mean that I love no one else! :-) This 'one' verse does not say that Christ did not die for all or that He did not die for some, while I listed for you many verses which specifically say that He died for all. Why this is so hard to accept is beyond me! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Which proposition is scriptural? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89171 | ||
Dear Tim, Your arguement stumbles over "...He WILL save". Your designation of "His people" as pertaining to a specific group (Israelites) has Jesus failing to fulfill prophecy, for only a remnant of the jews were actually saved. Rom 11:8 just as it is written, "GOD GAVE THEM A SPIRIT OF STUPOR, EYES TO SEE NOT AND EARS TO HEAR NOT, DOWN TO THIS VERY DAY." If instead, "His people" are those from every tribe and nation (those drawn by the Father and given to the Son) "will be raised up on the last day" (John 6). John |
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4 | Which proposition is scriptural? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89185 | ||
Greetings John! How about Rom. 11, where we are told that all Israel will be saved? It isn't really my goal to get into a long debate on this point. I have simply contented that you are taking a verse which is not specific, and could refer to Israel, to the elect, or to all creation, and have tried to make it say that Christ only died for some. But, it doesn't say that at all. You are interpreting it as saying that. Yet, when I show you verses which specifically say that Christ died for all, 'all' doesn't mean 'all'. How do you progress in a debate like that? :-) So, I will continue to stand with the clear statements of Scripture that Christ died for all. I simply haven't seen anything that convinces me that I am wrong to do that. But, I still love you my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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