Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Which proposition is scriptural? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89278 | ||
Dear Tim, "I know your going to hate me for this, but I can't resist!" Au contraire, mon ami! I love you for bringing up the 2 Peter 3:9. Is it not the very word of God? Verse 9 is a beautiful jewel that should be treasured by all who are His. But to fully appreciate it's beauty, it must be observed in it's setting. Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers will come with their mocking, following after their own lusts, and saying, "Where is the promise of His coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all continues just as it was from the beginning of creation." For when they maintain this, it escapes their notice that by the word of God the heavens existed long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by water, through which the world at that time was destroyed, being flooded with water. But by His word the present heavens and earth are being reserved for fire, kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men. But do not let this one fact escape your notice, beloved, that with the Lord one day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years like one day. The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance. But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up. Since all these things are to be destroyed in this way, what sort of people ought you to be in holy conduct and godliness, looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat! But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells. The following paragraphs are from "The Potter's Freedom" by James R. White "Immediately one sees that unlike such passages as Ephesians 1, Romans 8-9, or John 6, this passage is not speaking about salvation as its topic. The reference to "coming to repentance" in 3:9 is made in passing. The topic is the coming of Christ. In the last days mockers will question the validity of His prom- ise. Peter is explaining the reason why the coming of Christ has been delayed as long as it has. The day of the Lord, he says, will come like a thief, and it will come at God's own time. " "But the next thing that stands out upon the reading of the passage is the clear identification of the audience to which Peter is speaking. When speaking of the mockers he refers to them in the third person, as "them." But everywhere else he speaks directly to his audience as the "beloved" and "you." He speaks of how his audience should behave "in holy conduct and godliness," and says that they look for the day of the Lord. He includes himself in this group in verse 13, where "we are looking for a new heavens and a new earth." This is vitally important, for the assumption made by the Arminian is that when verse 9 says the Lord is "patient toward you" that this "you" refers to everyone. Likewise, then, when it says "not wishing for any to perish" but "all to come to repentance," it is assumed that the "any" and "all" refers to anyone at all of the human race. Yet, the context indicates that the audience is quite specific. In any other passage of Scripture the interpreter would would realize that we must decide who the "you" refer to and use this to limit the "any" and "all" of V.9 for some reason that simple and fundamental necessity is overlooked when this passage is cited ." Tim, since we have gone over this verse in depth before, but were unable to resolve our differences, I thought White may prove helpfull. God Bless, John |
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2 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89302 | ||
Greetings John! I know you would never really hate me! :-) I have heard this interpretation before, but it doesn't make any sense for two reasons. 1) First of all, if the basis for the Lord's delay in coming is that He doesn't want any of the people to whom Peter is writing to perish, then what is the basis for the Lord's delay. The one's to whom Peter is writing are already saved! 2) Secondly, the pronoun 'you' is not the only pronoun used. Peter also uses 'any' and 'all'. Now, we have discussed 'all' before, but 'any' is an indefinite pronoun. It does to refer to 'all' people with out discrimination, hence the 'indefinite' part. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89303 | ||
Hi Tim, For the sake of His collective "beloved" present and future. Acts 2:39 "For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself." White, who is proficient in greek as well as English said "for the assumption made by the Arminian is that when verse 9 says the Lord is "patient toward you" that this "you" refers to everyone. Likewise, then, when it says "not wishing for any to perish" but "all to come to repentance," it is assumed that the "any" and "all" refers to anyone at all of the human race. Yet, the context indicates that the audience is quite specific. I agree with White, not because he is a scholar or a reformed baptist, but because my sense of english language usage is confirmed by his claim that context is the key to identifying who is "any" and "all". Naturally your free to disagree. But I believe you would be hard pressed to refute his conclusion. John |
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4 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89323 | ||
Greetings John! Assuming your interpretation is accurate, why would it be permissible to make 'you' refer to all believers, past and future, but not permissible to make 'any' and 'all' refer to anyone and all individuals? What exactly is the contextual justification for this approach? It seems to me that you can't have it both ways. Either 'you' and 'any' simply refer to the original readers of the Epistle, or they can refer to a wider group. However, if they refer to a wider group, then you lose your justification for limiting 'any' and 'all'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89331 | ||
Dear Tim, Peter's topic (2nd Coming of Christ) is not meant for a small group in a particular place and time, but for the "invisible church" (all believers throughout the world and Throughout the ages. That is the context! These believers are the "beloved". Bro. John |
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