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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 89323 | ||
Greetings John! Assuming your interpretation is accurate, why would it be permissible to make 'you' refer to all believers, past and future, but not permissible to make 'any' and 'all' refer to anyone and all individuals? What exactly is the contextual justification for this approach? It seems to me that you can't have it both ways. Either 'you' and 'any' simply refer to the original readers of the Epistle, or they can refer to a wider group. However, if they refer to a wider group, then you lose your justification for limiting 'any' and 'all'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | When is an indefinite pronoun definite? | John 3:16 | John Reformed | 89331 | ||
Dear Tim, Peter's topic (2nd Coming of Christ) is not meant for a small group in a particular place and time, but for the "invisible church" (all believers throughout the world and Throughout the ages. That is the context! These believers are the "beloved". Bro. John |
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