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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 87767 | ||
Greetings Joseph3! Great, another Joe! :-) I'm going to have to hurry my friend. I am in the process of moving, so I don't have much time today. :-( g) 1 Tim. 2:6 - My short answer is that unless the adjective 'all' is modified in some way, it means 'all'. For instance, a verse can refer to 'all of you', or 'all believers', ect.... However, in these verses 'all' is not limited in anyway. Would you also make the case in Rom. 3:23 that 'all' only means 'all classes of men'? ;-) Further, there is a way of saying 'all kinds of men', if that was what God had intended. It just seems to me that we should read 'all' when it says 'all'. I've got to run! Let me close with this question: If God only died for the elect, where is the verse that says that He only died for the elect? I look forward to interacting more with you in the future when I have more time. I too have a 9-5 job, but it is 9 p.m. to 5:30 a.m.! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | gracefull | 88102 | ||
Tim, Forgive my timid entry here to ask a question. Is the heart of this debate the question of whether mankind is called and either accepts or rejects the Holy Spirit call to repentance? It seems to me that if this settles the question of universalism (all saved) and the issue of some few chosen and saved, and the rest never having opportunity. Purhaps I simply can't grast this argument! Does the Calvinist doctrine actually teach that a few are 'born' pre chosen for salvation and the rest not...born without hope or choice? How could God in His justice condemn someone with no choice? And how would these chosen elect be any different from created angelic beings if they are not given free will? Just a little clarification to scatter the haze here would be appreciated. God bless |
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3 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | Morant61 | 88115 | ||
Greetings Graceful! If I can, I will summarize very briefly what Calvinism teaches about salvation. I am not a Calvinist, so I might get some complaints! ;-) But, I will try to be fair. Calvinism teaches that natural man cannot respond to God because natural man is spiritually dead. Therefore, God must draw a person, call a person, grant repentance to a person, and grant faith to a person before that person can respond to the Gospel. This is all done by God and was preordained before man was even created. Consequently, Christ only died for the 'elect', those whom He chose before the creation of the world. The rest of the world gets what they deserve, punishment for sin. Arminianism teaches that Christ died for all men, that He draws all men, and that because of His drawing all men have an opportunity to respond to the Gospel. Arminianism teaches that the 'elect' refers to the Spiritual Israel of Rom. 9-11, and is made up of all those who have or will believe in Christ. That is the difference between the two in a nut shell. I'm sure I left something out though! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Arminianism came from what/who? | John 3:16 | reilly1041 | 88132 | ||
Thanks Tim for the overview, I had the same question as gracefull. One more question -- Calvinism obviously came from Calvin. Where did "Arminianism" come from? Thanks, reilly |
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5 | Arminianism came from what/who? | John 3:16 | Emmaus | 88136 | ||
Reilly, A few articles on Arminianism and Calvinism from a third party perspective, so to speak. http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/01740c.htm http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03195b.htm http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03198a.htm Emmaus |
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