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NASB | 1 John 2:2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 2:2 And He [that same Jesus] is the propitiation for our sins [the atoning sacrifice that holds back the wrath of God that would otherwise be directed at us because of our sinful nature--our worldliness, our lifestyle]; and not for ours alone, but also for [the sins of all believers throughout] the whole world. |
Subject: How do you respond to these passages? |
Bible Note: Greetings Joe! You have asked an excellent question! Keep in mind that this forum limits how much detail I can go into, but I will attempt to answer your question from my perspective. Robert Shank has phrased this better than I ever could, so I am going to borrow his paradigm to explain my view of the atonement. 1) The atonement is efficacious for all men potentially. I believe that the atonement is a once and for all of Christ on the behalf of all men. The cross paid for every sin of every individual for all time. This is an objective reality that does not depend in any way upon anything that we might do or say. 2) The atonement is efficacious for no man unconditionally. I also believe that the benefits of the atonement are conditioned upon the basis of our "receiving - Rom. 5:17" the grace of God (Repentance). 3) The atonement is efficacious for the Israel of God efficently. I further believe that the atonement is efficent only for those who have become a part of the Israel of God (the Elect). The key point that I don't think you see (from my perspective) is that Arminians don't see the atonement as only potential, but an objective reality. To use a limited human version of your George example, Christ payed His debt, but George insists on paying for himself (which he can't do). By the way, this view corresponds exactly with 2 Cor. 5:11-20. The reconciliation is an objective fact provided by God, but we have to be reconciled. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |