Subject: What is Free Will? |
Bible Note: Greetings Curt! You are correct! The word "men" is not in the text. The word is the masculine, plural, accustative adjective 'all'. Thus, it refers to all people, not just men. Concerning your NT quotes, notice that they all have one thing in common. They are addressed to believers. Now, suppose I was addressing a congregation and said, "God loves you". Does that mean that God loves no one else except for those in the congregation? This is the problem I have with the way in which many of these verses are interpreted. They are addressed to believers. They are chosen, but does that mean that no one else is chosen as well. Depending on the passage, there are other questions which jump up as well. Chosen for what? Salvation? Ministy? To display God's glory? 1) John 15:16: It appears here that the choice is for ministry. I just did a quick glance, but it appears that all of the occurances of this word in John refer to the disciples. Are they the only ones chosen? 2) Mt. 22:14 - Wasn't the whole point of this parable that the invitation was extended? 3) The rest of the NT quotes fall in the situation above. They say that those to whom he is writing are chosen, but do not say that no one else is chosen as well. Concerning your last paragraph! "Choosing means "To select from a number of possible alternatives; decide on and pick out." Does this not imply that some are chose, some are not chosen, otherwise, what is the selection? When God chose Israel, did He not leave others unchosen? If not, then what did choosing Israel mean? God is sovereign and can choose whom He will for His sovereign purpose." I agree, but God did not exclude anyone from salvation by choosing to make Israel His people. Obviously, God works in different ways with different inviduals. But, where is the verse which says He did not die for everyone? Where is the verse which says that He doesn't want everyone to be saved? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |