Subject: What is Free Will? |
Bible Note: Greetings Curt! As I have done before, I would respectfully disagree with this position. The text does not say all "kinds" of men. It does not say "Gentiles". The text doesn't even mention "Jews". In my personal opinion, the redefition of "all" to mean "some" is only based upon the demands of one's theology, not upon the text. It is a very subjective process. For instance, Jesus said in John 6:37 that "all" that the Father gives me will come to me. Would it be okay here to say that He doesn't mean each individual, but only some? The context must be the final arbitrator. If a passage says "all" in a certain room will receive a gift. Then "all" is limited to those in the room. However, John 12:32 contains absolutely no limiting words. The only problem is that it doesn't agree with a certain doctrine, so we limit it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |