Bible Question (short): To capitalize or not to capitalize? |
Question (full): Philippians 2:3 (ASV 1901) "[doing] nothing through faction or through vainglory, but in lowliness of mind each counting other better than himself;" (Note: the entire text of the ASV is available online at bible.crosswalk.com(slash)OnlineStudyBible) . . . Dear R.V.H.: Let me begin by saying that I DO count YOU better than myself. I mean that sincerely. In no way am I above anyone else. My reply is not a personal attack on you. There is no malice in my question. Please re-read my original answer to your original question about capitalization of pronouns referring to Deity in the Bible. . . . "Some religious literature chooses to capitalize pronouns that refer to the deity. As in the original languages, GOD'S WORD does not capitalize any pronouns (unless they begin sentences). In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else. In these cases the presence of capitalized pronouns would be misleading.". (p. xiii, GOD'S WORD, Grand Rapids: World Publishing, 1995) . . . Let's take a look at the main points in the above quotation. . . . 1) Some religious literature chooses to capitalize pronouns that refer to the deity. Some do not. . . . 2) The Scriptures "in the original languages" do not capitalize any pronouns. If the original manuscripts did not capitalize pronouns, and those Scriptures have endured until now, then WHY does anyone today feel that pronouns referring to the Deity MUST be capitalized? . . . 3) "In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else." If SCHOLARS -- those who have learned Hebrew and Greek and have studied the Bible IN THE ORIGINAL LANGUAGES -- if they are in some cases uncertain, is there not some arrogance in the assumption that the rest of us could just take a red pencil and go merrily through the Bible, capitalizing as the mood struck us? (Perhaps you have studied Greek and Hebrew at seminary level. If you have, then more power to you.) . . . 4) "In these cases the PRESENCE of capitalized pronouns would be misleading." If, on the other hand, the ABSENCE of capitalized pronouns is misleading, then blame God. For that is how the Bible was written in the original languages. The argument that the original manuscripts (as well as certain English translations including, but not limited to, the King James) are somehow misleading sounds to me like criticism of the Author of the book. (I am not writing the Bible. I can capitalize in my personal writing whenever I want to. That is not the issue here.) . . . My point is: Since you apparently do not understand my original reply, quoted above, then you could continue to ask questions about the lack of capitalization of pronouns until the Rapture, but any answer would be meaningless to you. That is, if you cannot grasp the concept that "In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else. In these cases the presence of capitalized pronouns would be misleading." . . . Again, WHO is going to make those decisions? Sincere laymen, Catholics, Protestants, Charismatics, non-Charismatics, liturgical churches, non-liturgical churches, the Mormons, the Jehovah's Witnesses, the Christian scientists? . . . If only the solution to the problem of capitalization were as simple and simplistic as you imply they are! I'm not against capitalization. I'm just against every Thomas, Richard and Henry with a red pencil tampering with the Bible. |