Subject: need for a bible-anyone |
Bible Note: Let’s examine the thief on the cross. Seems like a few questions immediately spring up with the thief issue. 1. Is the thief saved? 2. Was he baptized or not? (although this question is not relevant) 3. Does this apply to us today? (very relevant!) 1. What does Jesus say in Luke 23:43? 2. My whole premise is that this question is irrelevant, because of the change of covenants, but for the sake of argument it needs to be addressed. Nothing in the Scriptures tells us he was or was not baptized, but we do know this about him: he knew of the Messiah and His kingdom to come, Luke 23:42 “Jesus…when You come into Your kingdom!” He died the same day the Lord Jesus did. Both living under the same covenant, the same covenant kept and observed by our Lord up until His death. A new covenant was made and that covenant went into effect after the death of Jesus. The new covenant was His last will and testament. When does a will go into effect? When the testator dies, right? Then his will is read and executed. When Christ died, His will was read (Mark 16:15) and executed (Mark 16:16; Acts 2). 3. Whether the thief was or was not baptized has no bearing on our salvation, for we come after the cross. What Christ did before the cross, in no way nullifies the requirements of His will after the cross. Luke 24:47 says what? Repentance and forgiveness of sins. Repentance too is a requirement towards salvation. Faith does not stand alone. Matthew 28:19-20 who is being taught here? Verse 20 “teaching them all that I commanded you; and lo I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” We must have faith to obey the Lord’s commands. Is that not the greatest manifestation of faith: obedience to His commands? You wrote: Wow...what a misuse of a verse! So now we should conclude that the "faith, NOT works" passages plus the "works" passages, equals faith plus works! Something there just doesn't seem to add up. Let me go get my calculator... Wherein does obeying God’s commands constitute works or boasting in works? How is it that I have, as you say, misused the verse? If you do indeed believe in Psalm 119:160, how is it you ignore what it says? Why is it you refuse to acknowledge the conjunction “and” in Mark 16:16, in Acts 2:38, etc? Read Gal 3:23-27. What was said of those in verse 26? Who were they? Verse 27 continues to define that group. What specification in verse 27 is noted about those mentioned in verse 26? Mouse2 |