Subject: Was it complete? |
Bible Note: Greetings Grace and Truth! I know that you are aware that there is no "Bible" in the sense that there is one standard text handed down in complete form throughout the centuries. What we have are thousands of copies of the originals. These copies, while they agree 99.99 percent of the time, differ at some points. Mark 16:9-20 is one of those points. Is Mark 16:9-20 in my published translation? Yes, with footnotes indicating that it was not in the original autograph of Mark! Is it in many Greek manuscripts? Yes, but many also include information about it being added and not being in the original copies. Is it in the earliest manuscripts? No, even many of the early church fathers testify that it was not in the early greek copies. So, why is it missing in the earliest manuscripts? Why do so many copies which do contain it include notes identify it as a spurious addition? Why are there four different endings in the various copies of Mark? These questions have to be addressed my friend. You can't simply ignore them! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |