Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 1:20 For ever since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through His workmanship [all His creation, the wonderful things that He has made], so that they [who fail to believe and trust in Him] are without excuse and without defense. [Ps 19:1-4; Eph 2:10] |
Subject: Is God somehow responsible? |
Bible Note: Greetings Joe! You wrote: "Rather, it is just too simplistic that to say in the case of every occurrance of the word "all" that it necessarily means every single possible thing or person that can belong to the category in question." Here is exactly where we disagree. I would say that unless the text modifies 'all' in some sense, or unless we have an obvious example of hyperbole, then 'all' does include every single possilbe thing or person that can belong to the category in question. Rom. 3:23 does not qualify or restrict 'all' in any sense, so we would both be in agreement that 'all' here means every single individual; past, present, or future. However, neither does 2 Peter 3:9. To make his point clear, Peter uses two pronouns. The first in the phrase 'not wanting anyone to perish' is an indefinite pronoun. The second is in the phrase 'but all to come to repentance'. The text doesn't say, 'any of you'. The text doesn't say 'any of the elect'. The context doesn't talk about rulers like has been argued with 1 Tim. 2. So, there isn't any qualifier of any sort in the passage. Neither is there any verse in the Bible which states that Christ does not desire all to be saved. So, why change the clear meaning of the text? I personally believe that God is perfectly capable of expressing Himself clearly. There are words in Greek for 'some' or 'part'. God could have even had Peter say 'all of the elect', which would have cleared this point up for all time. So, it appears to me that the meaning of 'all' is changed here simply because it conflicts with a theological system of thought, not because of anything in the text. Have a Great Christmas my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |