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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 51117 | ||
Hello Raven What I'm saying is that God literally chooses certain people and others He allows to go to their certain judgement--hell and lake of fire. Men would never be willing apart from the drawing. Romans 3:11 (ESV) no one understands; no one seeks for God. No one means no one. "The only way God draws us is by reading His word. Romans 10 17So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." I thought hearing meant hearing. Does it mean reading now? These new word usages get me all confused. Steve |
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2 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | RAVEN | 51135 | ||
Hello Steve, Ok Steve I guess I found another contradiction in the bible. You wrote; "Men would never be willing apart from the drawing. Romans 3:11 (ESV) no one understands; no one seeks for God. No one means no one." Paul says different in Ephesians 3 3how that by revelation He made known to me the mystery (as I have briefly written already, 4by which, WHEN YOU READ, YOU MAY UNDERSTAND my knowledge in the mystery of Christ), 5which in other ages was not made known to the sons of men, as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to His holy apostles and prophets: By the way what is this ESV your using? Raven |
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3 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 51141 | ||
Hello Raven The context of Romans 3 and Ephesians 3 are completely different. Two different things are to be understood. Rom 1-3 builds a case that we are all guilty before God. Eph 1-3 is understanding who believers are in Christ. ESV is the English Standard Version that came out in November of 2001. Steve |
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4 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | RAVEN | 51146 | ||
Hello Steve, Well since I can't understand and you said Eph.3 is not a valid argument. What about 2 Timothy 3 15and that from childhood you HAVE KNOWN the Holy Scriptures, which are ABLE TO MAKE YOPU WISE for salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17THAT THE MAN OF GOD MAY BE COMPLETE, THOROUGHLY EQUIPPED FOR EVERY GOOD WORK. So how can this be if I can't pick up the bible and read it as it says in Eph.3 and understand it. Why does it say that it is able to make me wise for salvation and complete for every good work? Raven |
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5 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | srbaegon | 51156 | ||
Hello Raven The Scriptures DO make us wise for salvation. They teach us what we need to know. Upon believing we put them into practice. My point is that we can't understand and won't follow them without the Holy Spirit working in us so that we can believe. If Eph 3 is an invalid argument, why are you using it at the end of your posting? It's invalid. Steve |
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