Results 1 - 12 of 12
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 51178 | ||
Well, since you have used the caps lock and concentrates every last jumbled thought into a single paragraph, I guess that means you win! I am not wading into that mess of a post to pick out whatever you were trying to say, so take a deep breath and try again. It does seem from what I can tell that you still haven't told me what Galatians 3:15-17 IS saying, though. Don't worry, though, I have given up expecting a response. --Joe! |
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2 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51196 | ||
It is saying that the promised seed would come through Abraham, and that is Christ vs 16 15.Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man's covernant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto. 16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is (Christ). 17 And this I say, that the covernant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect. simply put it saying nothing would stop Christ from coming into the world, because God promise it would happen! |
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3 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 51219 | ||
You wrote: "simply put it saying nothing would stop Christ from coming into the world, because God promise it would happen!" No it is not...the whole chapter is talking about how and why no one was ever justified by the Law (starting w/ Galatians 3:11). How were people justified before the Old Covenant was established? What about before Christ came? --Joe! |
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4 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51382 | ||
You ask about Gal 3:15-17, which is the promised seed! Which is Christ! vs.2 is what Paul is addressing: "This only would I learn of you, Recieved ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith (Gospel)? And the verses are talking about the Law of Moses and the faith of Abraham I agree! vs.11 "The just shall live by faith (Gospel)". | ||||||
5 | Mark 16:16 what does it say? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 51409 | ||
No...I know the promised seed is Christ. Let me address the chapter more broadly so you will get my problem with your theology. First of all, faith and the gospel are not the same thing. One is saved justified by faith IN the gospel, but faith is a response of God's people to the gospel and not the gospel itself. In verses 1-5, Paul rebukes the Galatians for being so foolish by asking, "Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law or by hearing with faith?" Obviously the answer is the latter. The Galatians received the Holy Spirit by hearing with faith. Note that hearing with faith is the SOLE means that Paul mentions, which becomes important later. The works of the Law and faith are placed in direct opposition here as means to salvation. The Law isn't a means of salvation now (a point on which we agree, I know), but hearing with faith is the means. Verse 6 refers to Genesis 15, in which Abraham's faith (belief) alone is credited as righteousness. Abraham was justifed before God by means of his faith. Verses 7-9 puts us in the same category as Abraham, declaring us his sons by means of faith. Being his sons, we are heirs to the covenant promises God makes to Abraham, particularly the ones regarding "all nations" being blessed through his Seed. Faith is the means by which we become the spiritual sons of Abraham. We who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer. Galatians 3:10-12 reinforces the fact that the Law does not save. It never had the power to do so. That wasn't its purpose. Even Jews were not justified by the Law, because the Law brings a curse due to the moral ability of the unregenerate to follow it in the slightest. Verse 13 says that Christ redeemed "us" from the curse of the Law. The "us" refers to the Jews, as we see back in Galatians 2:15-16, and by the fact that Gentiles were never included in the covenant made with the nation of Israel, which is in view here. Looking back at chapter 2, he reinforces the idea that no flesh will be justified by the works of the Law, but by faith, just like Abraham. In verse 15, Paul returns to discussing the covenant between God and Abraham, in which we are included as his spiritual sons through faith. He writes regarding that covenant: "when it has been ratified, no one sets it aside or adds conditions to it." What was the condition of the covenant? By what was Abraham declared righteous? By faith. Verse 16 is very important. To whom were the promises spoken? To Abraham and his Seed. The promises of salvation were made to Abraham and to Jesus Christ. So how was Isaac saved? How were the Israelites saved? How were the Jews saved during the Babylonian captivity when there was no temple in which to make sacrifices? The answer to all of these questions is the same: union with Christ by faith in God's promise. Galatians 3:18 reiterates the point. The inheritance is based on God's promise, and not on law. Our works are not the basis at all of receiving what God has promised those who are spiritual sons of Abraham through faith in Christ, any more than the Law of Moses was a means for justification. Anything else would be adding conditions to the covenant by which we are saved. --Joe! |
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6 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51418 | ||
Let me see if I'm understanding you correctly, The book of Galatians, ;1,2Cor.;Eph;Col;Phil;Romans;etc. were written to baptized believers or unbaptized believers? You put what Jesus tells us to do to be saved, (to be baptized) in the same category as the Law of Moses! 1 John 2:4 "He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a lair, and the truth is not in him". How can John say this about believers, and you say Paul in his writing is excluding baptism, when Jesus is the one who told his disciples to preach and teach men what to do to be saved. Jesus told Ananias to tell Saul to "arise and be baptized and wash away his sins" Acts 22:16. 1 John 5:4-12 mainly vs.6-8 "This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood, And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth. vs.7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit: and these three are one. vs.8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. vs. If we receive the witness fo men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God, which he hath testified of his Son. From the above passages what do we learn, We need to have faith in what God tells us to do, and do it without questions! Why do you look for a way out of what Jesus said? Do we as men dictate the terms of salvation or does God dictate the terms? | ||||||
7 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51501 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Dear brother, I love you, but I have to say that you have consistently misunderstand the position of 'faith only'. We believe that Christians must obey the commands of Christ - all of them. We don't believe that obeying the commands of Christ saves us; rather, we CAN obey the commands of Christ ONLY because we HAVE BEEN saved. This is exactly what 1 John is saying. No where does 1 John say that we are saved by obeying Christ's commands. It simply says that anyone who doesn't obey and claims to be a Christian is a liar, because a Christian will obey Christ's commands. Notice also that 1 John doesn't deal with occasional acts of sin or disobedience, but continual lifestyles of sin or disobedience. This is indicated by the present tense used in all of these verses. No Christian will or can live in continous sin. Under your intepretation, not only must someone do 'works' in order to be saved, but the must also continue do 'works' in order to continue to be saved. In other words, under your view, salvation is gained and maintained by works. Please refer to Eph. 2:8-9 once again! :-) As most on this forum know, I an Arminian in theology. So, I do believe that a person can willfully reject salvation, even after they have been saved. However, even Arminians don't believe that a Christian loses their salvation after committing one sin or being disobedient one time. This is why there has been such a large response to your's (and a few others) teaching that one must be baptized in order to be saved. In our view, it is another 'gospel', which is not a gospel at all. (Gal. 1:6-7). Until you can demonstrate how your teaching doesn't contradict Acts 10:45, Eph. 2:8-9, Galatians, Rom. 4-5, ect..., no one will be convinced by your arguments! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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8 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51509 | ||
I have a problem with what you teach because you ignore plain bible teaching, James 2:22 says Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and (by works was faith made perfect)? vs. 24 Ye see then how that by works a man is (JUSTIFIED), AND (NOT BY FAITH ONLY). So what you are telling me is to ignore what the bible is teaching, but I can't do that. So where do I get my understanding? From the word of God. You state that if we include baptism in water with God's plan of salvation we are wrong in doing so, But if God included baptism in water with HIS plan of salvation is HE wrong in doing so? Baptism in water came from God and not us who teach it. Matt.21:25 can you answer Jesus's question? |
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9 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51513 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Thanks for the reply my friend! The problem is that there are many very clear Scriptures which teach against your understanding of salvation and baptism. Further, your understanding of James is not contextually accurate. James isn't teaching that works save, but that those who are saved will work. In fact, James 2:1-13 makes it clear that the 'works' being referred to concern the way we treat others. In this light, James says, "What good is it, my brothers, if a man claims to have faith but has no deeds? Can such faith save him?" - James 2:14. To the objector in v. 18, James says, "....Show me your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith by what I do." Because, "In the same way, faith by itself, if it is not accompanied by action, is dead." - James 2:17. Thus, the context is clearly speaking to those who claim to have faith, but do live it. James is simply saying to them that they don't really have faith because faith works. Which is fully in accord with Eph. 2:10. There Paul, says that once a person is saved that they will produce good works. Verse 24, simply says that faith which works is proven true. Your view contradicts other very clear Scriptures my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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10 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51516 | ||
It doesn't contradict Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38;8:38-39. When you read Gal,Eph and other text you are missing the fact the people being spoken to had already been baptized in water and they knew the reason why. Follow Paul's missionary journey in the book of Acts and you will see this to be true. | ||||||
11 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51518 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Okay! Expain how Romans 4 does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism? Explain how Eph. 2:8-9 does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism? Explain how the entire book of Galatians does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism. It doesn't matter is Paul was writing to baptized or unbaptized people. His words are crystal clear. 'Works' do not and cannot save! p.s. - I don't believe that these passage contradict Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38, only your interpretation of them. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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12 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51525 | ||
Roman 4 does not contradict the need for baptism because Paul in the 6 chapter explains how we are buried by baptism into the death of Christ! Eph 2:8-9 does not contradict because in chapter 5:26 tells us we are cleanse with the washing of water by the word. Galatians does not contradict because in chapter 3:27 tells us we are baptized into Christ and have put on Christ. I know you refer to these passages as Holy Spirit baptism, but that's not what Paul is saying. I don't know if you notice that all of the places you were seeking justification by only, water baptism is there with faith. Finally, in each book that you referenced, who was the book written to, those who have already been baptized for the remission of thier sins. |
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