Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51501 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Dear brother, I love you, but I have to say that you have consistently misunderstand the position of 'faith only'. We believe that Christians must obey the commands of Christ - all of them. We don't believe that obeying the commands of Christ saves us; rather, we CAN obey the commands of Christ ONLY because we HAVE BEEN saved. This is exactly what 1 John is saying. No where does 1 John say that we are saved by obeying Christ's commands. It simply says that anyone who doesn't obey and claims to be a Christian is a liar, because a Christian will obey Christ's commands. Notice also that 1 John doesn't deal with occasional acts of sin or disobedience, but continual lifestyles of sin or disobedience. This is indicated by the present tense used in all of these verses. No Christian will or can live in continous sin. Under your intepretation, not only must someone do 'works' in order to be saved, but the must also continue do 'works' in order to continue to be saved. In other words, under your view, salvation is gained and maintained by works. Please refer to Eph. 2:8-9 once again! :-) As most on this forum know, I an Arminian in theology. So, I do believe that a person can willfully reject salvation, even after they have been saved. However, even Arminians don't believe that a Christian loses their salvation after committing one sin or being disobedient one time. This is why there has been such a large response to your's (and a few others) teaching that one must be baptized in order to be saved. In our view, it is another 'gospel', which is not a gospel at all. (Gal. 1:6-7). Until you can demonstrate how your teaching doesn't contradict Acts 10:45, Eph. 2:8-9, Galatians, Rom. 4-5, ect..., no one will be convinced by your arguments! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51509 | ||
I have a problem with what you teach because you ignore plain bible teaching, James 2:22 says Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and (by works was faith made perfect)? vs. 24 Ye see then how that by works a man is (JUSTIFIED), AND (NOT BY FAITH ONLY). So what you are telling me is to ignore what the bible is teaching, but I can't do that. So where do I get my understanding? From the word of God. You state that if we include baptism in water with God's plan of salvation we are wrong in doing so, But if God included baptism in water with HIS plan of salvation is HE wrong in doing so? Baptism in water came from God and not us who teach it. Matt.21:25 can you answer Jesus's question? |
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3 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51513 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Thanks for the reply my friend! The problem is that there are many very clear Scriptures which teach against your understanding of salvation and baptism. Further, your understanding of James is not contextually accurate. James isn't teaching that works save, but that those who are saved will work. In fact, James 2:1-13 makes it clear that the 'works' being referred to concern the way we treat others. In this light, James says, "What good is it, my brothers, if a man claims to have faith but has no deeds? Can such faith save him?" - James 2:14. To the objector in v. 18, James says, "....Show me your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith by what I do." Because, "In the same way, faith by itself, if it is not accompanied by action, is dead." - James 2:17. Thus, the context is clearly speaking to those who claim to have faith, but do live it. James is simply saying to them that they don't really have faith because faith works. Which is fully in accord with Eph. 2:10. There Paul, says that once a person is saved that they will produce good works. Verse 24, simply says that faith which works is proven true. Your view contradicts other very clear Scriptures my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51516 | ||
It doesn't contradict Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38;8:38-39. When you read Gal,Eph and other text you are missing the fact the people being spoken to had already been baptized in water and they knew the reason why. Follow Paul's missionary journey in the book of Acts and you will see this to be true. | ||||||
5 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 51518 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! Okay! Expain how Romans 4 does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism? Explain how Eph. 2:8-9 does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism? Explain how the entire book of Galatians does not contradict the need for the 'work' of baptism. It doesn't matter is Paul was writing to baptized or unbaptized people. His words are crystal clear. 'Works' do not and cannot save! p.s. - I don't believe that these passage contradict Mark 16:16 and Acts 2:38, only your interpretation of them. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6 | Do we as men dictate the terms of Salv? | Bible general Archive 1 | Grace and Truth | 51525 | ||
Roman 4 does not contradict the need for baptism because Paul in the 6 chapter explains how we are buried by baptism into the death of Christ! Eph 2:8-9 does not contradict because in chapter 5:26 tells us we are cleanse with the washing of water by the word. Galatians does not contradict because in chapter 3:27 tells us we are baptized into Christ and have put on Christ. I know you refer to these passages as Holy Spirit baptism, but that's not what Paul is saying. I don't know if you notice that all of the places you were seeking justification by only, water baptism is there with faith. Finally, in each book that you referenced, who was the book written to, those who have already been baptized for the remission of thier sins. |
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