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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God somehow responsible? | Rom 1:20 | Reformer Joe | 70326 | ||
"Here is exactly where we disagree. I would say that unless the text modifies 'all' in some sense, or unless we have an obvious example of hyperbole, then 'all' does include every single possilbe thing or person that can belong to the category in question." But, see, that doesn't even address all the verses I cited in my previous post. Let's just look at the first one: "And all things you ask in prayer, believing, you will receive." --Matthew 21:22 This verse is frequently used by the "name-it-and-claim" it crowd to suggest that riches and power and perfect health are theirs for the asking. There is nothing in the immediate context that modifies the term "all things." So are these folks right in their interpretation? I think we would both say "no." What would be your answer to why "all things" really doesn't mean "every single thing imaginable," using only Matthew 21? "Rom. 3:23 does not qualify or restrict 'all' in any sense, so we would both be in agreement that 'all' here means every single individual; past, present, or future." But Paul does not intend to include every single individual here, but rather every single individual minus one. The rest of Romans and the rest of the New Testament makes it plain, as you and I will agree, that Jesus Christ the human individual is exempted from this judgment. We have already discussed 2 Peter 3:9 several timesbefore. We just disagree on whether the context of the verse ("patient toward YOU"), the chapter and the epistle qualifies the word "all" or not. And looking at longer, more explanatory passages like John 6:38-65 and Romans 9:18 ff. and Matthew 13:10-15 (the larger context of the New Testament), I see the same type of exegetical work required as we have in excluding Jesus from the "all have sinned" statement. By the way, I agree wholeheartedly that it is absurd to even suggest that Paul had Jesus in mind here, but the basis of declaring it absurd is not from the lexical use of the word "all," but rather the overwhelming testimony throughout the New Testament of Jesus' perfection. The verse in 1 Peter 3 is, of course, not nearly as obvious, but the Reformed arguments regarding this verse are not nearly as ridiculous and as unfounded on Scripture as their opponents claim them to be. --Joe! |
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2 | Is God somehow responsible? | Rom 1:20 | Lionstrong | 71267 | ||
I posted this to Tim. Would like your feed back. These post do not appear on the home page. So you would not see it otherwise. Peace, Tim, You wrote to Joe, "I could agree with you my friend if there were one verse which says that God does not desire to save someone! Then, we would have to make a choice based upon two apparently contrasting verses. However, their isn't one!" Please consider these passages: Matt 13:10 And the disciples came and said to Him, "Why do You speak to them in parables?" Matt 13:11 Jesus answered them, "To you it has been granted to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been granted. Matt 13:12 "For whoever has, to him more shall be given, and he will have an abundance; but whoever does not have, even what he has shall be taken away from him. Matt 13:13 "Therefore I speak to them in parables; because while seeing they do not see, and while hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand. Matt 13:14 "In their case the prophecy of Isaiah is being fulfilled, which says, 'YOU WILL KEEP ON HEARING, BUT WILL NOT UNDERSTAND; YOU WILL KEEP ON SEEING, BUT WILL NOT PERCEIVE; Matt 13:15 FOR THE HEART OF THIS PEOPLE HAS BECOME DULL, WITH THEIR EARS THEY SCARCELY HEAR, AND THEY HAVE CLOSED THEIR EYES, OTHERWISE THEY WOULD SEE WITH THEIR EYES, HEAR WITH THEIR EARS, AND UNDERSTAND WITH THEIR HEART AND RETURN, AND I WOULD HEAL THEM.' Mark 4:10 As soon as He was alone, His followers, along with the twelve, began asking Him about the parables. Mark 4:11 And He was saying to them, "To you has been given the mystery of the kingdom of God, but those who are outside get everything in parables, Mark 4:12 so that WHILE SEEING, THEY MAY SEE AND NOT PERCEIVE, AND WHILE HEARING, THEY MAY HEAR AND NOT UNDERSTAND, OTHERWISE THEY MIGHT RETURN AND BE FORGIVEN." After reading these two parallel passages answer: Why did Jesus speak to the crowds in parables? John 12:37 But though He had performed so many signs before them, yet they were not believing in Him. John 12:38 This was to fulfill the word of Isaiah the prophet which he spoke: "LORD, WHO HAS BELIEVED OUR REPORT? AND TO WHOM HAS THE ARM OF THE LORD BEEN REVEALED?" John 12:39 For this reason they could not believe, for Isaiah said again, John 12:40 "HE HAS BLINDED THEIR EYES AND HE HARDENED THEIR HEART, SO THAT THEY WOULD NOT SEE WITH THEIR EYES AND PERCEIVE WITH THEIR HEART, AND BE CONVERTED AND I HEAL THEM." John 12:41 These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. Who blinded their eyes and why? Matt 11:21 "Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the miracles had occurred in Tyre and Sidon which occurred in you, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. 2 Luke 10:13 "Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the miracles had been performed in Tyre and Sidon which occurred in you, they would have repented long ago, sitting in sackcloth and ashes. What would it have taken for the people of Tyre and Sidon to repent? If God had desired to save them could he have provided those miracles through some prophet? Peace, |
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