Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | The Bible is Right | 56542 | ||
Why did those in the first century get baptized the same hour that they believed, and baptism was commanded in Acts 10:48 all in the same hour. | ||||||
2 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | Hank | 56555 | ||
Dear "The Bible Is Right" -- First off, I don't understand the point of your question. Secondly, in the verse you cited (as well as the verses surrounding it), there is no reference to "the same hour." What led you to that conclusion? Thirdly, if you are attempting to show that water baptism has anything to do with the new birth in Christ (regeneraton, salvation) you miss the mark by a mile, friend. All one has to do is to read the full context of Peter's preaching to Cornelius' household, beginning at Acts 10:34 and ending at verse 48. Clearly these candidates for water baptism were already regenerate believers at the time Peter issued his command for them to be baptized (v.48). Please look carefully at v.47. Here's what it says, "Can anyone forbid water, (Peter is speaking) that these should not be baptized WHO HAVE RECEIVED THE HOLY SPIRIT JUST AS WE HAVE?" (emphasis is obviously mine). .... Now look at Rom. 8:8,9, ""So then, those who are in the flesh cannot please God. But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His." And in Romans 8:14 "For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, these are the sons of God."..... Do you see the connection? If these people that Peter referred to in Acts 10:47, who had not yet been baptized, were not already regenerate believers, why would Peter have said of them that they "have received the Holy Spirit just as we have"? The Holy Spirit does not dwell in an unrepentent sinner but in a regenerate believer. Paul makes that very clear in Romans 8. So how could anyone exegete this passage to say that the baptism commanded in Acts 10:48 was for salvation when these people had already received the Holy Spirit. --Hank | ||||||
3 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | The Bible is Right | 56562 | ||
Can you site any other passage other than Acts 10:34-48 where this was the case? I have delt with this passage before, and I find only one case like the one mentioned here. And one out of nine conversions means there was something special about this one. This is when God brought the Gentiles into the fold. And when the apostles in Acts 2 received the Holy Spirit, but all of the other cases were baptism then the Spirit was given. About baptism in the same hour go to Acts 8:26-38 and Acts 16:33. | ||||||
4 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | Hank | 56568 | ||
So, "The Bible Is Right", what I hear you saying is that Christ offers two plans of salvation, one for the Gentiles and another for the Jews. Are you a member of the denomination known as "The Church of Christ?" --Hank | ||||||
5 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | The Bible is Right | 56639 | ||
I just want to know are there any other cases like this one. And I know there is only one plan of salvation, and I know when we run upon something that is different from the rest of what the bible says about conversion then it must be a special event, that has a reason that we must study to understand. And to you last question, I'm not a member of any denomination! |
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