Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | rferg | 56317 | ||
Tim, You are mistaken about John 3:5 or at least in the version of the bible I am reading (I don't mean that sarcastically either). John 3:5 Jesus answered, Truly truly I say to you, unless one is born of water (shallow grave)(not referring to physical birth) an the Spirit (Jesus was filled with the Spirit during his baptism), he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. 6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh (physical birth) and that which is born of the Spirit (though baptism in water) is spirit. 7 Do not marvel that I said to you, you must be born again. Without baptism we don't recieve the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the life giver, the Spirit of Truth. Can the Holy Spirit live in a body that has not died to sin, certainly not. We need the Holy Spirit to teach us the word, to lead us in to paths of truth and righteousness. What would clear all this up is pastors preached a sermon on repentance of sin and explained exactly what sin is according to the bible and then ask all those who wanted to repent of their sins and be baptized to come forward and baptize them. That's what they did in the bible and that's are example. Sounds simple to me! |
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2 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | Morant61 | 56332 | ||
Greetings Referg! Thanks for the response my friend! You never did specify which version of the Bible you are reading! May I ask which one? 1) Concerning John 3:5, the word baptism does not appear anywhere in the Greek text. No form of the word occurs until v. 22, which is outside of the discoure and is found in a narrative passage describing the fact that both Jesus and John did some baptizing in the countryside. So, the question revolves around what does 'born of water' mean. To say that it refers to baptism means that one must bring in a word which is not found in the text neither is there any other verse which says that one must be baptized to be saved. However, physical birth and spiritual birth are contrasted and compared in this passage. The words themselves are actually in the text. So, to say that John 3:5 refers to physical birth and spiritual birth makes more sense in the context and does not require one to bring in concepts or words which are simply not found in the passage. 2) Finally, you said: "Without baptism we don't recieve the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the life giver, the Spirit of Truth. Can the Holy Spirit live in a body that has not died to sin, certainly not." Yet, Acts 10:44 says: " While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. 45 The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. 46 For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God. Then Peter said, 47 ‘‘Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.” 48 So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days." Here we see individuals who receive the gift of the Holy Spirit before they have been baptized in water. In fact, the reason Peter gives for baptizing them is that they had received the gift of the Holy Spirit. So, according to Scripture, one can receive the Holy Spirit without being baptized in water. Further, this also demonstrates that Acts 2:38 has been misinterpreted by those who want to add baptism as a requirement for salvation. If Acts 2:38 is teaching that one must be baptism to receive the forgiveness of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit, then Peter lied because in Acts 10:45 they received the gift of the Holy Spirit prior to water baptism. Fortunately for us, Peter did not lie. We simply haven't properly understood the grammar of Acts 2:38. The command to repent is plural. The phrase 'for the forgivess of sins and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit' is plural. Thus, these two are connected grammatically. However, the command to 'be baptized' is singular and cannot be connected grammatically to the plural phrases which follow it. Rather, it is a parenthetical statement which interrupts the flow of the sentence. The Scriptures are clear that we are saved by grace through faith and not by works. There is only one 'work' which God requires and that is that we believe in Him. All other works come as a result of salvation and are in no way requirements for salvation. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | The Bible is Right | 56393 | ||
Acts 4:12 Can bring better understanding to this subject than any other verse I know. "Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved". In Acts 2:38 the power is in the name of Jesus Christ that allows baptism to save. This is why Paul had a problem with the church at corinth, the members claiming the names of different people who baptized them. 1Cor. 1:10-17, mainly vs.15 "Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name". Paul was afraid, This is why he was glad that he only baptized a few people. Notice vs 13 Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were you baptized in the Name of Paul? You all take baptism far to lightly: You all need to ask this question Where did baptism come from? Jesus asked the chief priests and the elders this same question; do any one on the forum know the answer? When ever anyone handles the word of God we need to follow some simple rules: In his famous work Biblical Hermeneutics, M.S. Terry defined the concept of "analogy of faith." This principle "assumes that the Bible is a self-interpreting book, and what is obscure in one passage may be illuminated by another. No single statement or obscure passage of one book can be allowed to set aside a doctrine which is clearly established by many passages" (449). ") Concerning John 3:5, the word baptism does not appear anywhere in the Greek text. No form of the word occurs until v. 22, which is outside of the discoure and is found in a narrative passage describing the fact that both Jesus and John did some baptizing in the countryside." While it is true that the passage referenced (John 3:5 do not explicitly mention baptism, neither does it mention any allusion to repentance. Are we to assume that repentance is not required for redemption? Surely not. |
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4 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | The Bible is Right | 56402 | ||
I also heard this statement: Eph 2:8 'by grace are ye saved....;and Romans 3:22-27. Nowhere in these passages is baptism mentioned as a prequisite to salvation." While it is true that the passage referenced (Eph.2:8; Rom.3:22-27) do not explicitly mention baptism, neither does it mention any allusion to repentance. Are we to assume that repentance is not required for redemption? Surely not. It is rarely the case that a single context will totally exhaust the biblical material on a particular theme. It is the "sum" of the truth that counts (Psa. 119:160), not an isolated text, that may focus upon a limited point of emphasis. Acts 2:38 contends for repentance and baptism as "requisites" for "forgiveness," with no specific mention of faith. However, by means of that interpretive rule known as "analogy of faith," belief in the Lord must be implied as well. For example, the fact that God is said to be "one" (Dt.6:4) does not negate the biblical truth so abundantly affirmed elsewhere that God, i.e., the nature of deity, is possessed by three Personalities-father, Son, and Holy Spirit (Mt.28:19-20). A truth emphasized by additional information in other texts. This is a most fundamental principle of interpretation. While Ehp.2:8 mentions salvation by grace through faith, later, in the same letter, the apostle affirms that one is "cleansed...by washing of water with the word"(5:23). If one concludes that "saved" (2:8) is the eqivalent of "cleansed" (5:23), it then becomes obvious that salvation by "faith" is not independent of being "washed with water," (a phrase admitted by virtually all scholars to be a reference to baptism - Arndt, 481; Thayer, 382). Moreover, while both grace and faith are stressed in Rom.3:22ff- as means of "redemption"-three chapters later the inspired apostle affirmed that one is buried with Christ in baptism that he might walk in "newness of life" (6:3-4). Is "newness of life" a parallel descriptive for salvation? Of course it is. Clearly, then, salvation by grace and faith is not exclusive of other conditions specified in supplementary texts relating to justification. |
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5 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | retxar | 56405 | ||
Repentance is not a requirement for redemption, it is a result that HAS GOT TO HAPPEN. It is impossible to turn to the Lord without turning away from sin. | ||||||
6 | Isn't this verse saying that we rise to | Rom 6:4 | Hank | 56411 | ||
Hello, retxar. May I post a footnote to your post? The text: 1 Cor. 7:10,11 [NKJV], "For godly sorrow produces repentence leading to salvation, not to be regretted; but the sorrow of the world produces death. For observe this very thing, that you sorrowed in a godly manner: What diligence it produced in you, what clearing of yourselves, what indignation, what fear, what vehement desire, what zeal, what vindication! In all things you proved yourselves to be clear in this matter.".... The exegesis: [Believer's Study Bible: Thomas Nelson] "No one comes to Christ and salvation without sorrow for his sins. But sorrow in isolation only produces death. The sorrow of the world produces bitterness, hatred, avarice, and eventually death. Genuine godly sorrow works repentence unto salvation. 'Repentence' is the translation of two different Greek words. Judas repented (metamelomai), which means that he had regret concerning the way things developed (cf.Matt.27:3). The repentence mentioned in 1 Cor. 7:10 is metanoian, meaning a complete reversal. Literally, the term means 'to think after, to have an afterthought, to have a second mind' i.e., 'to change one's mind.' When a man recognizes sorrowfully his sinfulness and helplessness in his failure, he has a mind to seek God by faith in Christ. The inevitable result of this genuine repentence is a renewed interest in spiritual matters (v.11). Godly sorrow led the Corinthians to diligence, determination to clear themselves of charges, indignation against sin, fear of God, vehement desire for righteousness, zeal, and vindication. These verses reveal that repentence is to be a constant companion of the Christian from his conversion to his glorification." --Hank | ||||||