Subject: Unforgivable sin |
Bible Note: Greetings Teacher! I was just joking about the scholastic achievements! :-) I do know Greek, but am not a scholar by stretch of the imagination! :-) Allow me to narrow back in again to the relationship between Acts 2:38 and Acts 10. Your interpretation of Acts 10 simply can't work for one very simple reason. If Acts 2:38 means what you believe it does, then reception of the 'gift of the Holy Spirit'and 'forgiveness of sin' are a result of obedience to both commands - 'to repent' and 'to be baptized'. However, this is not the case in Acts 10. They received the gift of the Holy Spirit prior to being baptized. Therefore, one can only conclude that Acts 2:38 does not teach that baptism is necessary for either 'forgiveness of sins' or the reception of the 'gift of the Holy Spirit'. Only repentance is required for both, which makes perfect sense grammatically. I have proposed this question to many on the forum who have tried to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, yet not one has been able to explain why in Acts 2:38 one must do BOTH to receive the promises listed, yet the individuals in Acts 10 did not do both prior to receiving the promises listed in Acts 2:38. The best that anyone has been able to do so far is to say that this was a special circumstance. Yet, this argument negates the meaning of Acts 2:38 as you have proposed it. If in fact, one does not have to obey both commands to receive the promises, why does Peter say that one must? The only consistent position is that this understanding of Acts 2:38 is not correct, which then means that Acts 2:38 and Acts 10 are in perfect harmony - along with Rom. 4, Gal. 2, Eph. 2:8-10, ect.... Well, I have to run now! I have enjoyed our discussion my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |