Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | gjboone | 74314 | ||
Background Information: · The Book of Hebrews was written specifically to Jews by a Jew. · It was written to Jews whom had an intimate understanding of the “Old Testament” and the sacrificial system. · It is an exhaltation for the Messianic Jews not to abandon their belief in Messiah due to persecution, as Judaism was the only sanctioned religion. · It was not written to/for Gentiles. · Without a detailed understanding of the Torah and the ceremonial rites Gentiles will misinterpret this book. · There is little doubt this book was written in Hebrew first and then translated into Greek. In answering your question regarding Hebrews 8:6 it will be clearer if we look at Hebrews 7:11 first. Hebrews 7:11 “If (3303) * (1487) * therefore (3767) perfection (5050) were (2258) by (1223) the Levitical (3020) priesthood, (2420) * (1063) (for under (1909) it (846) the people (2992) RECEIVED THE LAW (3549),) what (5101) further (2089) need (5532) was there that another (2087) priest (2409) should rise (450) after (2596) the order (5010) of Melchisedec, (3198) and (2532) not (3756) be called (3004) after (2596) the order (5010) of Aaron? (2)“ Strong’s word 3549 “Nomotheteo” means to enact laws 1.) Laws are enacted or prescribed for one, to be legislated for, furnished with laws 2.) To sanction by law, enact. “Nomotheteo” is a compound word comprised of “nomos” and “tithemi”. “Nomos” is usually translated as “law” and clearly within the context of the book of Hebrews is referring to Torah. “Tithemi” means “lay, put, place, make”. Combining the two means to make law, enact, establish as law. The phrase “received the law” could have more properly been translated as “received Torah” or “enacted Torah”. THE ONLY OTHER PLACE IN THE BIBLE WHERE THIS PARTICULAR VERB (NOMOTHETEO) IS USED IS IN HEBREWS 8:6. Hebrews 8:6 “But (1161) now (3570) hath he obtained (5177) a more excellent (1313) ministry, (3009) by how much (3745) also (2532) he is (2076) the mediator (3316) of a better (2909) covenant, (1242) which (3748) WAS ESTABLISHED (3549) upon (1909) better (2909) promises. (1860)” To be consistent the verse should be rendered as: Hebrews 8:6 “But (1161) now (3570) hath he obtained (5177) a more excellent (1313) ministry, (3009) by how much (3745) also (2532) he is (2076) the mediator (3316) of a better (2909) covenant, (1242) which (3748) HAS BEEN ENACTED AS TORAH (3549) upon (1909) better (2909) promises. (1860)” Hebrews 8:8 “For finding fault with THEM, He saith” YHWH does not change (Malachi 3:6). The problem was with Israel’s disobedience, not with YHWH’s Word/Torah. Psalms 95:10/Hebrews 3:10 “They do alway ERR in THEIR HEART; and they have NOT KNOWN MY WAYS (Torah).” To rectify the problem YHWH “renews” the covenant by placing Torah into our hearts. Hebrews 8:10 “…I will put my laws (Torah) into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:” THE NEW TESTAMENT IS THE RENEWED COVENANT: Not done away with but renewed by placing Torah in our hearts and mind; By substituting the Blood of Yeshua for animal sacrifice. 1 John 1:9 ” If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us (through the Blood) from all unrighteousness.” The writer continues, Hebrews 8:13 “In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.” Now remember to who and when this letter is written. It was written to Jews who were STILL USING ANIMALS for their sin offerings and the daily sacrifice. The letter was written prior to 70AD---the TEMPLE WAS STILL INTACT, it had not yet “vanished away”. YHWH in His foreknowledge knew the Temple would be destroyed and He is instituting a “renewed” sacrificial system. This is what happens when theologians make commentaries from an egocentric perspective---wrong, broad conclusions. How many years have pastors been errantly misinterpreting these verses “to their own destruction”? The Bible says, “satan deceives the whole world”, he does by mixing truth with error just as when he was in the Garden. One way is to take a Hebrew book written to Hebrews and mistranslate it with a Gentile spin and bury that evidence (the original Hebrew) probably in the Vatican. Remember our primary translators had 1500 years of anti-Hebraic conditioning prior to King James and the modern translations are by extension a furthering of the same wrong theology. On the contrary, the Law and the Old Covenant are still in effect and the New Testament consistently testifies to that truth once the Word is rightly divided. More to come, Greg Boone |
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2 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | Morant61 | 74317 | ||
Greetings Greg! I say this will all due respect my friend, but this is an example of going to great lengths to explain away a clear statement of Scripture with which you don't agree. You have been arguing that Christians are still bound by an eternal covenant with Israel (including obedience to the Torah). Yet, Heb. 8:13 says, "By calling this covenant ??new,? he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear." This verse doesn't say that the first covenant was renewed. It says that it is obsolete. Further, Heb. 8:7 says that there was something wrong with the first covenant, "For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another." Thus, Heb. 8:8 says that He will make a 'new' covenant with His people. 'Kainos' does not refer to a re-newed covenant, but a different kind of covenant. Heb. 8:9 makes a distinction between the first covenant and the second covenant. My position has always been that the more someone has to explain away the meaning of a text, the more likely that person is wrong. These statements are clear. One cannot make 'new' to mean 're-newed', especially when the covenants are referred to as first and second and contrasted throughout the passage. Concerning Hebrews, there isn't any historical evidence that it was written in Hebrew - not that it would make any difference either way! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | gjboone | 75095 | ||
Tim, What is YHWH writing on our hearts and minds in the New Covenant? Keeping it simple, Greg Boone |
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4 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | Morant61 | 75116 | ||
Greetings Greg! I'll try to keep it simple as well my friend! :-) Hebrews never specifically says what will be written on our hearts. However, I can assume that it will not be the contents of the old, obsolete covenant, but rather the contents of the new, better covenant. This in and of itself is in opposition to your believe that we are still bound to keep the old covenant! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | gjboone | 75888 | ||
Dear Tim, The writer of Hebrews is quoting the “old testament” just as Yeshua did, Paul did, Peter did, etc. In fact, we have no scriptural evidence for a Promised Redeemer apart from the “old testament”. In other words, if it were not for the numerous prophetic verses in the “old testament” that point to Yeshua how would we know that He is whom He said He is? We could not. It would be like a Mormon coming to you and saying the “new testament” has been replaced because I just had a vision, etc, etc. and everything else has been rendered obsolete. How far will that sail? That is why the “old testament” serves as our eternal foundation and everything in it will come to pass. Amos 3:7 “Surely the Lord GOD WILL DO NOTHING, but HE REVEALETH His secret unto His servants the prophets.” Isaiah 8:20 “To the law and to the testimony(OLD TESTAMENT): if they speak not according to this word (TORAH), it is because there is no light in them.” Matthew 5:18 “…one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law (Old Testament), till all be fulfilled. We cannot have it both ways: The “old testament” is applicable when it fits my theology but obsolete when it does not. With that said, the writer of Hebrews is quoting Jeremiah 31, Jeremiah 31:33 “But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law (Torah) in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.” Hebrews 8:10 “For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws (Torah) into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:” This is outright plagiarism. YHWH should sue. Imagine bringing obsolete Old Testament concepts into the nice grace-filled New Testament. Of course I am being facetious. But then the question becomes why is YHWH writing Torah in our hearts if that old burden has been done away with? Isaiah 46:10 “Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:” Show me the scripture where it has been “REVEALED” that the Torah will be made obsolete. You will not be able to. "This in and of itself is in opposition to your believe that we are still bound to keep the old covenant! :-)" Not close. Bear with me and I will show you why you are standing on sinking sand. We must love the truth (2 Thessalonians 2:10) Greg Boone |
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6 | What is iniquity in Matthew 7:23? | Matt 7:23 | Morant61 | 75891 | ||
Greetings Greg! My friend, I have shown you numerous times, but you contine to ignore what the verses say. One more time, Heb. 8:13 - "By calling this covenant ??new,? he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear." What did this verse call the old covenant? Answer is: What is obsolete? To which old covenant is He referring? Heb. 8:9 says that it was the one He made with Israel when He led them out of Egypt. You wrote: "Matthew 5:18 ??one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law (Old Testament), till all be fulfilled." But, Scripture tells us that all things have been fulfilled in Christ. This is why Paul said: Rom. 10:4 - " Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes." Now, you said that I could not one Scripture which says that it is obsolete, but Heb. 8:13 uses that exact word. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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