Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | self control / spirit control | 1 Cor 9:25 | Reformer Joe | 54395 | ||
I think you are making more out of the name issue than is warranted. First of all, in almost every language a person's name varies. I would be called "Jose" in Peru and "Giuseppe" in Rome, because that is the derivative of "Joseph" in those languages. Likewise, "Jesus" comes from the Greek version of the Hebrew name. That is why we see Moses' successor being called "Joshua" in the Hebrew Scriptures and my Redeemer being called "Jesus" in the Greek ones. Since Yahoshua was a pretty common name in Judea during the Messiah's earthly ministry, and that there is at least one other "Jesus" mentioned in the New Testament, it is hardly a reason to start up conspiracy theories. And lest we insist that the Savior of the world be called by his Hebrew name or be dishonored, let's remember that the Holy Spirit inspired the Greek transliteration that the apostles penned.... --Joe! |
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2 | self control / spirit control | 1 Cor 9:25 | bubbatate | 54453 | ||
Dear Joe……. Do you have any Spanish friends, Joe? Do you call your Spanish friend Jose, “Joe”? Do you call Pedro, “Pete”? Do you call a Spanish person named “Jesus” (hay-soose), “Jesus” (gee-suhs)? If not, why not? Do you respect the integrity of his name and heritage perhaps? As for: “Likewise, "Jesus" comes from the Greek version of the Hebrew name. That is why we see Moses' successor being called "Joshua" in the Hebrew Scriptures and my Redeemer being called "Jesus" in the Greek ones.” How can a translator translate “iesous” as “Jesus” in one place and as “Joshua” in another? SEE HEB 4:8? That is sloppy, inconsistent translating. Again, I ask……..Strong’s et al acknowledge that “Joshua” is the proper translation for Yehoshua and Iesous………where did “Jesus” come from? As for, “And lest we insist that the Savior of the world be called by his Hebrew name or be dishonored, let's remember that the Holy Spirit inspired the Greek transliteration that the apostles penned....” WHHHHHAAAAATTTTTTT? That’s a ROFLOL!!!!!! El Bubbo |
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3 | self control / spirit control | 1 Cor 9:25 | Reformer Joe | 54475 | ||
'Do you have any Spanish friends, Joe? Do you call your Spanish friend Jose, “Joe”? Do you call Pedro, “Pete”? Do you call a Spanish person named “Jesus” (hay-soose), “Jesus” (gee-suhs)? If not, why not? Do you respect the integrity of his name and heritage perhaps?' Actually, many Jose's and Jesuses go by Joe and Jesse in the United States. And when I do visit my Latin American friends, I am Jose. You pick up a Spanish newspaper and read about the American President, you will see the name "Jorge Bush." It is a very common practice, and no one's heritage is being trampled by it. It is simply recognized that proper nouns, like any other nouns, are represented by different words in different languages. Only "sacred name" cults really make a big deal out of such things when it comes to Jesus. 'How can a translator translate “iesous” as “Jesus” in one place and as “Joshua” in another? SEE HEB 4:8? That is sloppy, inconsistent translating.' Then it must be very rough for you to find a Bible to match your superior knowledge, since I am not aware of a single one in English that meets your scholarly standards. I am glad that you are aware of the existence of the epistle to the Hebrews, since you seem so averse to addressing its substantive content. Since you have found it, maybe you should stop to consider that the English translators translated verse 4:8 the way they did so that English readers would be aware of whom the verse was describing. You wrote: 'Again, I ask……..Strong’s et al acknowledge that “Joshua” is the proper translation for Yehoshua and Iesous………where did “Jesus” come from?' The GREEK New Testament. You are a liar when you imply that Strong considers "Joshua" to be the solitary proper translation of Iesous. By the way, would you mind terribly if I start calling them both "Iesous," then? That's how the Bible has it, after all! 'As for, “And lest we insist that the Savior of the world be called by his Hebrew name or be dishonored, let's remember that the Holy Spirit inspired the Greek transliteration that the apostles penned....” WHHHHHAAAAATTTTTTT? That’s a ROFLOL!!!!!!' Yes, you are laughing yourself right off this Forum, Bub. Why don't you be a brave and honest man and tell us which parts of the Bible you think are from God and which ones aren't? --Joe! |
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4 | self control / spirit control | 1 Cor 9:25 | Ray | 54479 | ||
Hi Reformer Joe, Your point about translating Hebrews 4:8, "For if Joshua..." is a good one. Joshua is indeed speaking these words in Joshua 22:4, "And now the Lord your God has given rest to your brothers, as He spoke to them..." This shows the importance of using a version with capitalization of Deity, or at least taking note of who is speaking. Heb 4:8, "For if Joshua had given rest, He would not have spoken of another day after that." Note also the difference in Hebrews 4:7 between the NKJ and the NASB. The NKJ makes it clearer by rendering it, "...again He designates a certain day..." Excuse me for jumping in on your discussion. From the heart, Ray |
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