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NASB | John 5:19 ¶ Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 5:19 ¶ So Jesus answered them by saying, "I assure you and most solemnly say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself [of His own accord], unless it is something He sees the Father doing; for whatever things the Father does, the Son [in His turn] also does in the same way. |
Subject: Evidence? |
Bible Note: Greetings Fatherof4! Those who know me on the forum know that I am a stickler for detail! :-) Rather than saying that Angel had been deceived by a mistranslation, wouldn't it have been more accurate to simply say that you don't agree with the translation - since you offer no evidence to refute the translation? My study of the word indicates that when 'ge' is used with a place name ('land of Israel' for instance) it is best translated 'land', but there are many cases in Scripture and in historical documents that indicate 'ge' was also used to refer to the whole earth. For instance: Matt. 5:18 - "I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Here the earth and the heavens are clearly meant, not just one part of the earth. Mt. 6:10 is a similar example - "your kingdom come, your will be done on earth as it is in heaven." Acts 1:8 is another excellent example - "But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth." Clearly, 'the land' would not fit the context of this particular verse. So, it appears that you object to the translation based upon your theology, not based upon any evidence that the word was mistranslated. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |