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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can a divorced person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:15 | kalos | 39169 | ||
You write: " . . . divorce is no more than a legal separation and does not carry the right to remarry. This is the view held by the catholic church." I couldn't agree with you more when you say "This is the view held by the catholic church." It sure is! But I am not a Catholic (not that there's anything wrong with that) and neither are the majority of active members on this forum. Moreover, whether this is the view held by the Catholic or any other church is not the issue. The issue is, for the 100th time, THE JEWS, GREEKS AND ROMANS OF THE NT ERA CORRECTLY UNDERSTOOD THAT DIVORCE INDEED IS A DISSOLUTION OF THE MARRIAGE BOND JUST AS THOUGH IT HAD NEVER BEEN. The Roman Catholic notion that divorce was no more than legalized separation from bed and board was wholly unknown to the people of the NT era. The primary question in this thread never has been "What constitutes grounds for divorce?". Those grounds have been covered repeatedly on this thread. The question here is simply "Can a divorced person remarry?" We already know there are Scriptural grounds for divorce. The inspired teachings of Christ AND Paul provide grounds for divorce for two -- NOT ONE, BUT TWO (2) -- REASONS. Anyone who thinks the only inspired writings are the teachings of Jesus may as well throw away their Bibles and get one that contains only the very words of Christ himself. But the Bible says ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God -- not just the four gospels. |
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2 | Can a divorced person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:15 | EdB | 39185 | ||
Kalos You make me rethink a position on divorce and remarriage. You made a statement,"THE JEWS, GREEKS AND ROMANS OF THE NT ERA CORRECTLY UNDERSTOOD THAT DIVORCE INDEED IS A DISSOLUTION OF THE MARRIAGE BOND JUST AS THOUGH IT HAD NEVER BEEN." Is that factual? I always knew that divorce dissolved the marriage but I never knew it made the marraige as though it had never existed. I'm not challenging but asking here. If Jesus talked about divorce and knew these implications then He would be saying when he gave the exceptions for divorce that after the divorce the marriage in question never existed. If the person was never married they would then be free to marry. Therefore it is not a question of remarriage at all since the first would be considered not to have existed. EdB |
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3 | Can a divorced person remarry? | 1 Cor 7:15 | kalos | 39193 | ||
Ed, my good and respected friend: It is indeed a fact that "THE JEWS, GREEKS AND ROMANS OF THE NT ERA CORRECTLY UNDERSTOOD THAT DIVORCE INDEED IS A DISSOLUTION OF THE MARRIAGE BOND JUST AS THOUGH IT HAD NEVER BEEN." This being so, it would be unnecessary for Jesus or Paul to define divorce since the actual meaning of the word was already known and understood by the people of the NT era. After all, divorce is/was a legal term and carries an objective legal definition that at that time was known and understood by all. "Therefore it is not a question of remarriage at all since the first would be considered not to have existed." Exactly! That is exactly my point. You make my day. Thank you for your reply. Take care. |
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