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NASB | 1 Corinthians 7:15 Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 7:15 But if the unbelieving partner leaves, let him leave. In such cases the [remaining] brother or sister is not [spiritually or morally] bound. But God has called us to peace. |
Subject: Can a divorced person remarry? |
Bible Note: Kandola: "While forgiven, you must bear the consequence of the divorce." What does that mean? That you are hereby sentenced to wear the scarlet letter, D for divorcee, for the rest of your natural life? It is true that, according to the scriptures, Christians have, not merely the right, but also the duty to judge. However, before one goes around condemning everyone else, one needs to comply with the following: "Thou hypocrite, first cast the beam out of thine own eye, and then shalt thou see clearly to cast the mote out of thy brother's eye" (Matt 7:5). (I trust that neither Jesus who said this nor Matthew who wrote it, is "incorrect" or "in error"). The standard by which we judge the divorced person must be based upon all of the scriptures related to the issue. The standard must not be based upon one's own imagined understanding and definition of divorce and remarriage. Scripture, not personal fantasy, is the basis for judgment. Further, one dare not base his opinion on one and only one verse, ignoring all other scriptures that address the issue. According to some, there is only one passage of Scripture that addresses the issue of divorce and/or remarriage. Even then they are "incorrect" and "in error" in their interpretation in that they do not understand their one Scripture, the reason being their failure to consider every word of the verse. Nor do they apply the principle of analogia scriptura, which is as follows: One of the basic principles of biblical interpretation is the *analogia scriptura*, the analogy of Scripture. In other words, we must compare Scripture with Scripture in order to understand its full and proper sense. And SINCE THE BIBLE DOESN'T CONTRADICT ITSELF, ANY INTERPRETATION OF A SPECIFIC PASSAGE THAT CONTRADICTS THE GENERAL TEACHING OF THE BIBLE IS TO BE REJECTED." (Emphasis by capitalization is mine.) Let all judge and jury wannabes consider the following: 1) As has already been noted in this thread, there are two extraordinary cases in which Scripture teaches that God does permit divorced people to remarry. Those cases have already been adequately presented, defined and defended. 2) Thus, there are Scriptural grounds for divorce: adultery or desertion. The key to understanding lies in the proper understanding of the word divorce and what it means, including what it meant to the average Greek, Roman or Jew of the first century when he heard the word. A tradition dating back centuries and beginning with the Roman Catholic Church views divorce as "legal separation from bed and board." And that's all divorce is in this tradition. However, The people of the time of Jesus' earthly ministry, both Jews and Greeks, properly understood that divorce is the "dissolution of the marriage bond just as though it had never existed." If one accepts the second definition (the definition that is true both Biblically and historically), then one can only come to one conclusion: The RIGHT TO DIVORCE carries with it THE RIGHT TO REMARRY. If it doesn't, then divorce is not dissolution of the marriage bond. Instead divorce becomes legal separation from bed and board, nothing else. Which definition to follow: the popular one (legal separation) or the historically and Biblically sound one (dissolution of the marital bond, which carries with it the right to remarry)? Additionally, 1 Cor 7:11 clearly teaches that "If a Christian divorces another Christian *except for adultery*, neither partner is free to marry another person" (p. 1738, MacArthur Study Bible, Word, 1997). The converse of this principle is: If a Christian divorces *FOR adultery*, then he/she IS free to marry another person. If one indeed has a Scriptural right to divorce (and scripture does permit divorce on the grounds of sexual immorality or desertion), then he would also have the right to remarry. Finally, some make the dubious point that while divorce may be "permitted", it is not "allowed". Hello? I was under the impression that the words permit and allow meant THE SAME THING. |