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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Evidence? | John 5:19 | Fatherof4 | 128025 | ||
Tim, 'earth' may be one of the possible meanings, but I do not believe the original audience would have understood it to mean 'the entire globe' in the same sense that we do today. |
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2 | Evidence? | John 5:19 | Morant61 | 128039 | ||
Greetings Fatherof4! Those who know me on the forum know that I am a stickler for detail! :-) Rather than saying that Angel had been deceived by a mistranslation, wouldn't it have been more accurate to simply say that you don't agree with the translation - since you offer no evidence to refute the translation? My study of the word indicates that when 'ge' is used with a place name ('land of Israel' for instance) it is best translated 'land', but there are many cases in Scripture and in historical documents that indicate 'ge' was also used to refer to the whole earth. For instance: Matt. 5:18 - "I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Here the earth and the heavens are clearly meant, not just one part of the earth. Mt. 6:10 is a similar example - "your kingdom come, your will be done on earth as it is in heaven." Acts 1:8 is another excellent example - "But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth." Clearly, 'the land' would not fit the context of this particular verse. So, it appears that you object to the translation based upon your theology, not based upon any evidence that the word was mistranslated. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Evidence? | John 5:19 | Fatherof4 | 128103 | ||
Tim, Thanks, but I do think that some Bible translations are based on errant theology and are therefore deceptive. (i.e. the Scofield Refernce Bible) Here are some thoughts: Matt 5:18... "heaven and earth" must be figurative, or else we are all still under the Law. "Heaven and earth" must disappear before the Law, so if the Law has been fulfilled, then "everything" has been accomplished and "heaven and earth" have disappeared. Read Isaiah 51:16. "I have put my word in your mouth and have covered you with the shadow of my hand, to establish the heavens, to found the earth, and to say to Zion, 'You are my people'". (NASV) From this article: http://newjerusalemministriesboards.com/rheaven.htm ...the point is made that "God created Israel's "heaven and earth" by giving them his Covenant. Now if he destroyed that Old Covenant heaven and earth and gave a New Covenant, would he not thereby be creating a new heavens and new earth? This is precisely the thought in the New Covenant scriptures." Acts 1:8 predicts the fulfillment of the Great Commission, which Paul clearly states has been completed (Rom. 10:16-18) for instance. Although I can see other instances where "earth" can be translated as more than just "land of Isreal", I cannot see how it could be translated as "the planet as known in the 21st century" given the context and supporting scriptures. |
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4 | Evidence? | John 5:19 | Morant61 | 128121 | ||
Greetings Fatherof4! 'Deceptive' means a deliberate attempt to deceive. If a translation is based upon errant theology, it doesn't follow that said translation is deceptive. It may be wrong or inaccurate, but deceptive is a deliberate attempt to deceive someone by incorrectly translating a word. Allow me to address your comments! 1) Mt. 5:18 - This is an example of faulty logic. I used to work as a computer programmer. When writing a progam, one must often use logic loops to accomplish certain goals. If your logic is faulty, the program will not work correctly. Allow me to explain! Mt. 5:18 does not say that 'heaven and earth' will disappear when everything is accomplished. Rather it says that the smallest letter of the Law will not disappear until everything is accomplished. This entire statement is set in the context of being true until heaven and earth disappear. The logic looks like this: While heaven and earth exist, then not one letter will disappear until everything is accomplished. No statement is made about when or how heaven and earth will disappear. 2) Is. 51:16: You seem to go to great lengths to make 'heaven and earth' figurative. A much simpler way of looking at this verse is found in the NIV: "I have put my words in your mouth and covered you with the shadow of my hand— I who set the heavens in place, who laid the foundations of the earth, and who say to Zion, ‘You are my people." This translation makes sense logically and contextually. God is appealing to His creative power to demonstrate His redemptive power. Allow me to demonstrate my point from the context: Is. 51:6 - "Lift up your eyes to the heavens, look at the earth beneath; the heavens will vanish like smoke, the earth will wear out like a garment and its inhabitants die like flies. But my salvation will last forever, my righteousness will never fail." Is. 51:13a - "that you forget the LORD your Maker, who stretched out the heavens and laid the foundations of the earth, ...." 3) Rom. 10:16-18: No where does Paul say that the Great Commission has been completed. In this passage, Paul asks a series of questions concerning whether or not ISRAEL has heard the Gospel. Nothing is said about everyone else hearing the Gospel. In all honesty my friend, it seems that you are straining at gnats because of your theology. You claim that 'earth' is a false and deceptive translation of 'ge', but when asked for evidence, you provide none. Your theology cannot allow 'ge' to mean 'earth'; therefore, you seem to be going to great lengths to deny the plain truth. Look in a good Greek lexicon and you will find that the ancient Greeks did in fact use 'ge' at times to refer to the entire planet. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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