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NASB | Revelation 13:8 All who dwell on the earth will worship him, everyone whose name has not been written from the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who has been slain. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Revelation 13:8 All the inhabitants of the earth will fall down and worship him, everyone whose name has not been written since the foundation of the world in the Book of Life of the Lamb who has been slain [as a willing sacrifice]. |
Subject: Our name erased or added to Book of Life |
Bible Note: Greetings John! You appeal to Mt. 2:3 and Mk. 1:5 as evidence that 'all' doesn't mean 'all'. Is there some reason why all of Jerusalem could not have been troubled? Is there some reason why all of the people of Judea and Jerusalem could not have gone out to John? This is the problem I have with those whole interpretative approach. You are assuming that it can't mean 'all', but there is no valid proof that it doesn't mean 'all'. John was a major prophetic figure. Why would it be impossible for all of Judea and Jerusalem to go out to him? You also wrote: "I believe that "His people" whom He came to save are synonomous with "His sheep" who He came to save." What is the Biblical basis for this belief? Is there somewhere in the Bible where the two phrases are used together? There are several places where the phrase 'His people' clearly refers to Israel. Consider the following: Luke 1:68 - "Praise be to the Lord, the God of Israel, because he has come and has redeemed his people." The context even goes on to talk about the covenant God made with Israel. Acts 13:17 - "The God of the people of Israel chose our fathers; he made the people prosper during their stay in Egypt, with mighty power he led them out of that country, 18 he endured their conduct for about forty years in the desert, 19 he overthrew seven nations in Canaan and gave their land to his people as their inheritance." Rom. 11:1 - "I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew. Don?t you know what the Scripture says in the passage about Elijah?how he appealed to God against Israel:" Rom. 15:10 - "Again, it says, 'Rejoice, O Gentiles, with his people.'" Jude 5 - "Though you already know all this, I want to remind you that the Lord delivered his people out of Egypt, but later destroyed those who did not believe." So, here are a couple of example where 'His people' clearly refers to Israel. Where are the Scripture verses where 'His people' is used as a reference for elect individuals? Finally, where in 2 Cor. 5:14 is the 'old man' mentioned? The passage simply lists who He died for, as do the following verses. Heb. 2:9 - "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone." 1 Tim. 2:6 - "who gave himself as a ransom for all men?the testimony given in its proper time." 1 John 2:2 - "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world." The funny thing about this discussion is that the verses I am quoting all actually say what I am saying. I made the claim that Christ died for all men. Behold, the verses I quote say the same thing. I don't have to explain them, or add words to them, or say what they really mean. I just quote them! Where is the verse which says that Christ did not die for all men, or that He only died for some men? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |