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NASB | John 3:5 Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 3:5 Jesus answered, "I assure you and most solemnly say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot [ever] enter the kingdom of God. [Ezek 36:25-27] |
Subject: Verses where water alone means baptism? |
Bible Note: Hi, Dalcent! Thank you for drawing our attention to these quotes. You're right! Those seven quotes do conclusively indicate that their author's understood the word water in John 3:5 to be Christian baptism. I do not mean to equivocate or quibble... However, what you have brought to our attention is that these men interpreted John 3:5 in this way; not *why* they interpreted it this way. The latter question is what would bear light on this issue. (Although it is very interesting that these men saw it this way. By the way, are all these men considered authoritative by the Church of Rome?) The reason that Acts 10:47 does not fit the prescribed parameters of the question is because it specifically mentions baptism. From my review of the word water in the NT, some other word always accompanies it when baptism is the intended meaning. Peter said, "Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?" (NASB) But, if he had said, "Surely no one can refuse water for these who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?" It would have been similar in structure and usage to the way the word was used in John 3:5. Nevertheless, Peter is talking about baptism *subsequent* to receiving the Holy Spirit. While Christ is talking about something that occurs *simultaneous* with receiving the Holy Spirit. I hope that I have clarified things rather than making them more obscure! In Him, Doc PS Wasn't Tertullian a Montanist, or am I mixing him up with someone else? |