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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55727 | ||
Hello Stokey 1) Let me state it better then. You can see that it has the idea of preeminence, so that first in a sequence is because of rightful place and not because one begins to count from there. Look at the whole picture please. And you are still comparing apples to oranges. That's deceptive. 2) You stated the definition came from Strong. Now you say it's from Webster. More deception? 5) The author of that book must have seen a better copy of Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph) than I've seen, so my teacher was wrong. I'll check it for myself later. Steve |
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2 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55877 | ||
Come on, Steve, you know I'm not being deceptive. The definition of the Greek word is from a Greek dictionary-Strong; the meaning of the English word from an English dictionary. Stokey. |
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3 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55879 | ||
Hello Stokey I quote from your posting (ID# 55632): "Strong's says (a) means: 'godlike (neut. as noun, divinity).' This indicates a quality in the neuter tense; (b) means: 'divinity (abstract)'; (c) means: 'divinity (abstract).'" I'm just calling you on your statement. Steve |
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