Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | John 9:24 ¶ So a second time they called the man who had been blind, and said to him, "Give glory to God; we know that this man is a sinner." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 9:24 ¶ So a second time they called the man who had been [born] blind, and said to him, "Give God glory and praise [for your sight]! We know this Man [Jesus] is a sinner [separated from God]." |
Subject: Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man |
Bible Note: Dear stokeyhk, To start with, please don't quote the NIV to me. I don't use it, I don't trust it. Let us quote Romans 9:5 from the KJV(my personal favorite, but I digress): "Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen." If you also read the verses before v5, you will see that the Apostle Paul is talking about Jesus' earthly bloodline being Jewish. That is the antecedent for the word "Whose". Also, notice, in the KJV, there is a comma after "Christ came", and in the translations you use, there is a period. Jamieson, Fausset and Brown have this to say on that subject: "To get rid of the bright testimony here borne to the supreme divinity of Christ, various expedients have been adopted: (1) To place a period, either after the words "concerning the flesh Christ came," rendering the next clause as a doxology to the Father--"God who is over all be blessed for ever"; or after the word "all"--thus, "Christ came, who is over all: God be blessed." See how easy it is to remove the Deity of Christ? In fact, in the KJV, you could almost put a comma between "God" and "blessed", and it would read even more clearly: "Christ came, who is over all, God, blessed for ever. Amen." Besides, in the other translations, the phrase "God be blessed forever", with the period before it, is akward. Have you ever read these versions and wondered how it fits in with the rest of the verse? It doesn't. Why? Because they are wrong! Besides, it doesn't fit in with Paul's style of writing. Now, the NKJV says thus: "of whom are the fathers and from whom, according to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen." Notice, "who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen." again, Jesus IS GOD!! Makarios said, "First born points to eternal preexistence." You said, "Why?" Why? Because in Colossians 1:16, "He is the firstborn over all creation"(NKJV) Using your own argument concerning the meaning of 'firstborn', He has existed since before creation. And you still have not answered concerning Genesis 1:1 in relation to Colossians 1:16. (By the way--about Proverbs 8:22--You really need to go back and read the whole chapter!! Solomon here is talking about WISDOM. This is NOT a Messaianic prophecy!!!) Now, touching on 'only begotten': Jesus the Word was in the bosom of God(John 1:18) since the beginning(John 1:1). He was 'begotten' in the sense that he was born in an earthly manner to walk the earth. His fleshly body was 'born', but He has always been(John 8:58--"Before Abraham was, I AM") Here's another verse for you to explore: Colossians 2:9--"For in him[Jesus] dwelleth ALL the FULLNESS of the Godhead bodily."(KJV) Strong's defines Godhead thus: 1) deity 1a) the state of BEING GOD, Godhead[capitalization added for emphasis] I truly hope you will research your position on this issue more clearly, and realize that Jesus was, is and always will be, God the Son!! God is my Strength and Power, and He makes my way perfect!! 2nd Samuel 22 PS: You wrote, "So in [Philippians 2:6], would you say Jesus not 'thinking it robbery to be equal to the Most High God' is an example of humility and unselfishness? Of course not!" So, what is meant by this verse, in your opinion? And the NIV tranlation of that verse is absurd! Please use another version. |