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NASB | John 9:24 ¶ So a second time they called the man who had been blind, and said to him, "Give glory to God; we know that this man is a sinner." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 9:24 ¶ So a second time they called the man who had been [born] blind, and said to him, "Give God glory and praise [for your sight]! We know this Man [Jesus] is a sinner [separated from God]." |
Subject: Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man |
Bible Note: Doesn't the term "firstborn" refer to both position and chronology? Colossians 1:15, 16 says Christ is "the Firstborn and Lord of all creation. For in Him was created the universe of things in heaven and on earth . . . all were created, and exist, through and for him." (Weymouth, capitalizations are his.) This agrees with 1 Corinthians 8:6 which says: "For us there is but one God, the Father, FROM whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH [again an intermediary] whom all things came and through whom we live." (Capitalizations are for emphasis only.) Further, 1 Corinthians 11:3, 27 say: "The head of the Christ is God" and "for he 'has put everything under his feet.' Now when it says that 'everything' has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ." Is this clear to us? Interestingly, Colossians 1:18 says he is "the Firstborn from among the dead." Again position and chronology! This agrees with John 1:1-3. Verse 3 says: "Through him all things were made." "Through" indicates intermediacy. Revelation 19:13 calls Jesus "The Word of God." (KJV, capitalization KJV.) John 1:18 says: "No man hath seen God at any time." John 1:1 in the Greek clearly distinguishes between the two Gods mentioned by saying Jesus was "with the God." You say "APPOINTED" is "a more precise translation of Romans 1:4." Note the following translations: 1) NIV says: "Declared." 2) Weymouth says: "Decisively proved." 3) KJV says: "Declared," or "determined." 4) TCNT says: "Miraculously proved." 5) The Century Bible says: "Declared: Gr. 'determined.'" Is "to claim otherwise" outside the bounds of the Bible, though? Hebrews 1:8-12 does not prove that Jesus "is, has been, and always will be the one true God." Hebrews 1:9 says: "Thy God." That is Jesus' God! Further, John 17:1-3 shows that Jesus said his Father is "the only true God." How many persons did Isaiah see? Isaiah 6:8 records God as saying: "Who will go for us?" So, he saw God's glory and Jesus' glory. Yes, most of 'the sons' are in italics. So, Does this mean that Seth was not the son of Adam? Does this mean that Adam was not the son of God? Is this what Luke was saying? In Matthew 28:18, if "authority has been given," then Jesus didn't have it before. Hence, he could not be the equal of God, could he? Yes, as Hebrews 5:8 shows, Jesus served God. However, God Almighty doesn't serve anyone! Capitals are added by the translator's feelings and views. Jesus was transferred to Mary's womb. He did not inherit sin from Adam, so doesn't come within the scope of Hebrews 9:27, which, incidently, is primarily referring to Jewish high priests under the Law. The Bible (KJV) uses the terms: 1) "Firstborn" in Colossians 1:15. 2) "Born" in Luke 1:35. 3) "Firstborn" in Colossians 1:18. All are "born," so why not "births"? Acts 24:5 calls Jesus' followers: "The Nazarene heretics." (TCNT) I suppose it was a heresy from apostate Jewish worship. But remember what Jesus said: "You nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition." (Matthew 15:6) Clearly, the Trinity is not a BIBLE teaching! (Capitalizations are for emphasis!) Stokey. |