Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | BradK | 55733 | ||
Dear Stokey, You never directly answered my question :) 1. There is only ONE God (Jehovah), who has never given the glory of His Godhead to any created being, whoever he may be. This God is the ONLY SAVIOR. The examples given should be sufficient to show to anyone except those whose minds are already made up and biased, that the God of the Old Testament is the Lord Jesus Christ of the New. 2. I most definitely believe the Trinity is revealed in the OT! cf. Gen 1:1( Elohim- Heb. plural- more than 2, a least 3), Gen.1:26, ..."Let Us make man"... 3. I'll say something for the unwarranted separation of "the great God" from our "Savior Christ Jesus" in Titus 2:13. Either the translators did not know or deliberately ignored a principle of Greek grammar which states that when kai, the copulative 'and', connects two nouns of the same case, and if the article precedes the first noun, the latter always refers to the same person that is expressed by the first noun. The NASB, NKJV, RV, NIV correctly renders Titus 2:13 "Our great God and Savior Jesus Christ" where one person is meant, not two. Respectfully Yours In Christ, BradK |
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2 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55883 | ||
1. Matthew 4:10; John 8:54; Matthew 22:41-45; Psalm 110:1; Philippians 2:9-11. 2. You say plural is "more than 2." The American Journal of Semitic Languages and Literatures says Elohim is "almost invariably construed with a singular verbal predicate, and takes a singular adjectival attribute." It denotes "greatness and majesty, being equal to The Great God." 3. Which translation of Titus 2:13 agrees with "God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior"? (Titus 1:4) You say the NIV "correctly renders Titus 2:13" and "either the translators did not know or deliberately ignored a principle of Greek grammar." Why, then, does the NIV render the same principle as "our God and the Lord Jesus Christ" and relegate "God and Lord, Jesus Christ" to a footnote, but not do the same in Titus 2:13? The Greek Testament states that "of the great God and of the Savior" "satisfies all the grammatical requirements of the sentence: that it is both structurally and contextually more probable, and more agreeable to the Apostle's way of writing." Stokey |
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3 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55887 | ||
Hello Stokey Matt 4:10 states only God is to receive worship, yet the gospels are replete with examples of Jesus receiving worship. This would make him out to be a scoundrel and not fit to save anyone including himself. Steve |
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4 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55950 | ||
For example? Stokey. |
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5 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55985 | ||
Hello Stokey Surely you jest. Explicit mention: Matthew 2:11 (ESV) And going into the house they saw the child with Mary his mother, and they fell down and worshiped him. Then, opening their treasures, they offered him gifts, gold and frankincense and myrrh. Matthew 14:33 (ESV) And those in the boat worshiped him, saying, "Truly you are the Son of God." Matthew 28:9 (ESV) And behold, Jesus met them and said, "Greetings!" And they came up and took hold of his feet and worshiped him. Matthew 28:17 (ESV) And when they saw him they worshiped him, but some doubted. Mark 5:6 (ESV) And when he saw Jesus from afar, he ran and fell down before him. Luke 24:52 (ESV) And they worshiped him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy, John 9:38 (ESV) He said, "Lord, I believe," and he worshiped him. Implicit mention: Luke 17:15-16 (ESV) Then one of them, when he saw that he was healed, turned back, praising God with a loud voice; [16] and he fell on his face at Jesus' feet, giving him thanks. Now he was a Samaritan. John 12:3 (ESV) Mary therefore took a pound of expensive ointment made from pure nard, and anointed the feet of Jesus and wiped his feet with her hair. The house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume. Steve |
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6 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | kalos | 56000 | ||
'...the [Greek] word "proskuneo." Whenever it is in reference to Jesus, they [JWs] absolutely will not let it be translated as worship.' Steve: I believe you will find the following information regarding the word 'worship' to be helpful. Grace to you, kalos ************* 'The New World Translation and "Proskuneo" (worship) ' The chart below is a list of every occurrence of the Greek word "proskuneo" that I could find in The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures (1969). (Note: the chart is not reproducible here. To see the chart, go to www.carm.org/jw/nwt_proskuneo.htm). This work was produced by the New World Translation Bible committee in accordance with the Watchtower organization. An interlinear is a word for word translation of the Greek text. Included in this Watchtower interlinear is the text of the New World Translation Bible placed in a column on each page so the reader can see exactly how the NWT renders each occurrence of the verb "proskuneo." ' The word "proskuneo" means "to kiss the hand, bow down before, show obeisance, to worship." Since the Jehovah's Witnesses deny that Jesus is God, they maintain that He is not to be worshipped. So, how does the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society translate the word "proskuneo" in their Greek New Testament in reference to Jesus and other objects of adoration? The NWT never translates the word into "worship" when it references Jesus. It does, however, render the word as "worship" in regards to the devil, the dragon, the beast, the image, demons, idols, and an angel. Of course, they correctly translate it as "worship" when it deals with God. ' Is the New World Translation biased against worshipping Jesus? It would surely seem so, especially since the NASB, NIV, KJV, NKJV, etc., all translate the word as "worship" in reference to Jesus. ' What is curious is to note that the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society used to teach that worshipping Jesus was acceptable: ' "The fact that our Lord received worship is claimed by some to be an evidence that while on earth he was God the Father disguised in a body of flesh and not really a man. Was he really worshiped, or is the translation faulty? Yes we believe our Lord Jesus while on earth was really worshiped, and properly so. While he was not the God, Jehovah, he was a God. The word ‘God’ signifies a ‘mighty one,’ and our Lord was indeed a mighty one. So it is stated in the first two verses of the gospel of John. It was proper for our Lord to receive worship in view of his having been the only begotten of the Father. . ." (The Watchtower, July 15, 1898, p. 216.) ' It seems that as the Watchtower theology changed, they needed a Bible consistent with those changes; hence, the New World Translation. Following is a chart listing every appearance of the word "proskuneo" in the New World Translation. Let's see if the bias of the Watchtower organization is obvious. (Note: the chart is not reproducible here. To see the chart, go to www.carm.org/jw/nwt_proskuneo.htm). (...) 'As you can see, the NWT is very biased in how it translates the word "proskuneo." Whenever it is in reference to Jesus, they absolutely will not let it be translated as worship. Why? Because they erringly deny that Jesus is God in flesh and their Bible reflects their bias. This is not how proper theology is done. ' The Watchtower Organization has changed the Bible to suit its needs. ' (www.carm.org/jw/nwt_proskuneo.htm) |
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7 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 56031 | ||
Hello kalos Thanks for all the info you've been supplying. Steve |
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