Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | 2ndSamuel22 | 55642 | ||
Dear stokey, 1) Colossians 1:15--Yes, He is the first born over every group of creatures:"The firstborn of EVERY creature." So, Jesus is still preexistent before all creation(As in, "Reuben, Jacob's firstborn--Genesis 35:23) . Besides, look at verse 16: Paul says, "FOR by Him were all things creted...". That word 'for' emphasizes what he says in v15. Thus rendered, "[Jesus] is the image of the invisible God...For by Him were all things created.(see Genesis 1:1)" 2) As far as what Strong's says about the word 'Godhead', again, as I said in my last post, "1a) the state of BEING GOD, Godhead[capitalization added for emphasis]" 3) Touching on Colossians 3:1, let us move two verses down--Colossians 3:3"...and your life is hid with Christ in God" Christ is in God, and is One with God. 4) The reason Philippians 2:6 does seem to not harmonize with humility is this: There is no need! It is not robbery for Jesus to consider Himself one with God!! He IS God! I wish I could continue this discussion this week, but I will have to pick it up at a later date. I am leaving for Arizona Friday for my first mission trip(to witness to the Navajo), and the next few days will be jam packed for me. I will read what you respond with, and if I can possibly give a short answer I will. God is my Strength and Power, and He makes my way perfect!! 2nd Samuel 22 |
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2 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55711 | ||
1) Reuben was "the firstborn of" Jacob's children. So still part of the group. Yes, the word "for" gives the reason for the statement "the firstborn of all creation." Why can we say Jesus is the firstborn? Because all other creation came after and "through" him. (Colossians 1:16) The word "through" shows that Jesus is not the Source. As for Genesis 1:1, "the heavens" were not the first creation of God. (Revelation 3:14) Proverbs 8:27 says: "When he prepared the heavens, I was there." Genesis 1:26 says: "God said, Let us MAKE man in our image." (Colossians 1:15a) Verse 27, however, says: "God CREATED man." Jesus agreed with this in Matthew 19:4. 2) Strong's nos. 2304, 2305, 2320. 3) Genuine Christians are "in God," too. 4) Yes, Philippians 2:6 does not harmonize with humility! Being "equal with God" is not the same as 'being God.' The Navajo translation of the Bible was published in 1985, after 41 years of work! "Jehovah" appears in the Navajo Bible in Psalm 68:4. The brochure: "Enjoy Life on Earth Forever" was released in the Navajo language by Jehovah's Witnesses in 1995. Say "Hello!" to the local brothers in the Kingdom Halls in the Navajo and Hopi resevations. Stokey. |
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3 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | flinkywood | 55718 | ||
Stokey, The Watchtower, 2/15/79, P.31: "Jesus Christ, whom we understand from the scriptures to be Michael, the archangel." What scriptures say that Jesus is Michael? Colin. | ||||||
4 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55729 | ||
The teaching that Michael, the archangel is Jesus Christ before he came to earth and since his return to heaven is not exclusive to Jehovah's Witnesses. The name of Michael is found in Daniel 10:13, 21; 12:1; Jude 9; Revelation 12:7. The term "the archangel" is found in 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (NIV) and Jude 9. Daniel 10:13 says: "Michael, one of the chief princes." Daniel 10:21 says: "Michael, your [Daniel's] prince." Daniel 12:1 says: "Michael, the great prince who protects your [Daniel's] people." Jude 9 says: "Michael the archangel." Revelation 12:7 says: "Michael and his angels." Michael means "Who is like God?" This points to the fact that Jehovah God is without like, or equal, and that Michael is the one who takes the lead in upholding Jehovah's sovereignty and destroying God's enemies. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (NIV), the command of Jesus for the resurrection to begin is described as "the voice of the archangel," and Jude 9 says the archangel is Michael. If the designation "archangel" applied, not to Jesus, but to other angels, then the reference to "the voice of the archangel" would be describing a voice of lesser authority than that of the Son of God. Notice the term is never plural in the Bible, thus implying that there is only one: "THE archangel." Revelation 12:7-12 describes "Michael and his angels" defeating Satan and his angels in connection with kingly authority being conferred on Christ. (2 Thessalonians 1:7) Jesus is the one who leads the armies in heaven to destroy the nations of the world. Jesus is the one who will 'crush Satan's head' also. (Genesis 3:15; Galatians 3:16) Daniel 12:1 associates the 'standing up of Michael' to act with authority with an unprecedented "time of distress" during "the time of the end." (Daniel 11:2-4, 7, 16b, 20, 21, 40) This fits the experience of the nations in Revelation 19:11-16 and Matthew 24:21. So the evidence indicates that the Son of God was known as Michael before he came to the earth and is known also by that name since his return to heaven where he resides as the glorified spirit Son of God. Stokey. |
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5 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | srbaegon | 55739 | ||
Hello Stokey You've done a good job of proving Michael is an/the archangel. However, the granting of authority by God for a particular function does not make someone equal to Jesus. Steve |
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